1Cells that do not have mitochondria and/or good oxygenation can use only anaerobic glycolysis to produce a small amount of energy (2 ATP) and lactate. To use energy-carrying molecules other than glucose for energy generation (e.g., fatty acids, ketone bodies), the presence of mitochondria and oxygen is needed (aerobic pathways).
Mitochondrial energy generating pathways:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) complex, fatty acid beta-oxidation, Krebs cycle, and terminal oxidation (the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation).
Cellular examples:
Anaerobic - Erythrocytes have plenty of oxygen within the cell since they are oxygen carriers, however, they lack mitochondria.
Aerobic – heart muscle cells have plenty of mitochondria and, under normal conditions, have a good oxygen supply.
What is the difference in energy generation of cells that have or do not have mitochondria and good oxygenation? List the mitochondrial energy-generating pathways.
2What are the fates of pyruvate under aerobic and anaerobic conditions in human cells?
Pyruvate can be:
1. Oxidatively decarboxylated to acetyl-CoA by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH) in the mitochondria under aerobic conditions.
2. Reduced to lactate in the cytosol under anaerobic conditions.
3. Carboxylated to oxaloacetate in the mitochondria under aerobic conditions.
4. Transaminated to alanine in the cytosol. This can be under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions, depending on the needs of the cell.
3What is the location and function(s) of the Krebs cycle and how is it regulated?
The Krebs cycle is located in the mitochondrial matrix (mitosol).
Its catabolic function is to take acetyl-CoA that is produced by the PDH complex, certain amino acids, or fatty acid beta-oxidation, and produce reduced cofactors (3 NADH and 1 FADH2) and a molecule of GTP per acetyl-CoA molecule.
NADH and FADH2 enter the terminal oxidation system to produce ATP.
The anabolic function of the Krebs cycle is to supply starting material for different biosynthetic processes, including gluconeogenesis, amino acid synthesis, etc. The cycle is regulated by feedback inhibition by its products NADH and succinyl-CoA, as well as by ATP.
4How does the chemiosmotic hypothesis for ATP generation describe the link between electron transfer and ATP generation?
The chemiosmotic–coupling mechanism involves the generation of a proton gradient and reversal of an ATP-dependent proton pump.
An electrochemical gradient of protons is established across the inner mitochondrial membrane during electron transport by pumping protons from the mitosol to the inter-membrane space. Once a gradient is established, the dissipation of the gradient is coupled to synthesis of ATP by the mitochondrial F1F0 ATPase.
While the energy carried by NADH is sufficient for the production of 3 ATPs, FADH2 energy is only enough to produce 2 ATPs in the terminal oxidation system.
5What molecules can be used for energy generation by cardiac muscle cells?
Cardiac muscle cells utilize fuel molecules in aerobic energy generation pathways. Although cardiomyocytes can utilize glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids for energy generation, they prefer fatty acids, since much more energy can be generated from 1 molecule of fatty acid than from 1 molecule of glucose or amino acid.
They also can use stored energy in the form of glycogen (glucose, which is utilized in glycolysis) and creatine phosphate for quick energy (ATP) release.
6What causes myocardial ischemia and myocardial infarction?
Angina pectoris is chest pain from reversible myocardial ischemia, usually due to coronary artery narrowing. Ischemia forces cardiac tissue into anaerobic metabolism, producing lactate and H⁺, which activate nociceptors and cause pain.
Symptoms include substernal pressure radiating to the arms, jaw, or neck, typically triggered by exertion and relieved by rest. If ischemia persists, it can lead to myocardial infarction, where cell death occurs due to complete vessel blockage, often from a blood clot, causing more severe and prolonged pain.
7What is the relationship between lipoproteins and risk for coronary heart disease?
Plasma lipoproteins, made in the liver and intestine, transport lipids in the blood. LDL, VLDL remnants, and chylomicron remnants are rich in cholesterol and increase atherosclerosis risk. In contrast, HDL removes cholesterol from arteries and is protective. Thus, LDL is "bad" cholesterol, and HDL is "good" cholesterol. Atherosclerosis involves cholesterol buildup in arterial walls, macrophage infiltration, smooth muscle proliferation, and fibrosis.
8What is the mechanism of atherosclerotic plaque formation?
Atherosclerosis begins with LDL (especially oxidized LDL) entering the arterial wall via endothelial receptors. Monocytes migrate into the intima, become macrophages, and ingest oxidized LDL, forming foam cells. Foam cell death and lipid accumulation trigger inflammation, smooth muscle proliferation (via PDGF), and fibrosis. This forms plaques that narrow arteries, reducing blood flow (ischemia). Plaque rupture can cause clot formation, leading to myocardial infarction.
9After a myocardial infarction, why are cardiac muscle-specific intracellular proteins found in the blood?
There are certain forms of proteins (e.g., cardiac troponin I, cTnI) that are found in specific cell types, like cardiac muscle cells, but not other cells. Under normal conditions, these cardiac muscle-specific proteins may be present in the blood at low levels (i.e., within the normal reference range) due to normal cell turnover. When a myocardial infarction occurs, cardiac muscle cells may experience extended lack of oxygen, die, break open, and spill their intracellular contents into the blood. This is why elevated plasma cardiac troponin I (cTnI) can serve as a diagnostic marker of myocardial infarction. It is also a highly-sensitive marker of myocardial infarction.
10What are the characteristics of good biomarker assays?
1. Widely available and inexpensive 2. Sensitive = test’s ability to designate an individual with disease as positive 3. Specific = test’s ability to designate an individual without disease as negative 4. High Positive Predictive Values (PPV) = those among who tested positive do have the condition of interest 5. Precise = <10% difference between two repeated/parallel measures (reproducibility of the test) 6. Quantitative 7. Can be used to clearly distinguish between normal and pathological levels of markers.
11Describe the expected high-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI), cardiac troponin I (cTnI) and creatine kinase (CK)-MB protein profiles in the blood after a myocardial infarction (MI) event.
Serum/plasma cardiac troponin I (cTnI) levels as detected by the high-sensitivity assay (hs-cTnI) are elevated above normal values at < 1 - 3 hours after the MI, peak at between 12 - 24 hours, and stay elevated for varies - 14 days. cTnI is the newest FDA-approved biomarker used in high-sensitivity assays to detect cardiac cell death. Serum/plasma cardiac troponin I (cTnI) levels as detected by the conventional assay are elevated above normal values at 4 hours after the MI, peak at about 24 hours and stay elevated for 7 - 10 days. Serum/plasma CK-MB levels are elevated above normal values at 6 - 12 hours after the MI, peak around 16 - 24 hours and go back to normal in 48 hours. Both the conventional cTnI assay and the CK-MB measurement have widely been replaced by the superior hs-cTnI measurement, but the conventional cTnI assay and the CK-MB assay are still covered in your First Aid book (i.e., the Step 1 exam).
12Describe why plasmin may be important for patients with a myocardial infarction?
Blood clots related to a myocardial infarction can be dissolved by the enzyme plasmin. Plasmin circulates in blood in an inactive form, plasminogen. Plasmin is activated by tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA).
13In general terms, explain the structural basis of cross-striations in striated muscle and how the organization of contractile proteins enables muscle contraction.
Cross-striations visible in light micrographs are evidence of organization of contractile proteins in sarcomeres. Thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments are organized in a regular arrangement allowing the overlapping filaments to slide over one another shortening the fiber with an efficient and coordinated force.
14What junctions are present in intercalated discs and how are they organized?
Cardiac muscle fibers are joined together end to end by intercalated discs which contain the following types of junctions:
1. fascia adherens
2. macula adherens (desmosomes)
3. gap junctions.
The intercalated disk has a step-like configuration with different junctions occupying vertical and horizontal domains. Fascia adherens are analogous to zonula adherens in function (cell-cell adhesion) and are mediated by the same molecules (cadherins), however they are sheet-like rather than circumferential. The many gap junctions present in cardiac muscle tissue are responsible for the electrical coupling between adjacent cardiomyocytes so the heart muscle contracts as a unit.
15What features distinguish cardiac and smooth muscle? Shape, Nucleus, Sacromeres, Myofilaments, Dense Bodies, T-Tubules, Caveole, & Junctions
Myofiber Shape Cardiac Muscle: Cylindrical, Branched;
Smooth Muscle: Fusiform (tapered ends).
Nucleus Cardiac Muscle: Single (sometimes 2), Central; Smooth Muscle: Single, Central.
Sarcomeres/Striations Cardiac Muscle: Yes; Smooth Muscle: No.
Myofilaments (Actin-Myosin) Cardiac Muscle: Yes; Smooth Muscle: Yes.
Dense Bodies Cardiac Muscle: No; Smooth Muscle: Yes.
T-Tubules Cardiac Muscle: Yes; Smooth Muscle: No.
Caveolae Cardiac Muscle: No; Smooth Muscle: Yes.
Junctions Cardiac Muscle: Intercalated Discs (3 types: FA, MA, Gap jxns); Smooth Muscle: Gap jxns.
16A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion that is relieved by rest. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Which of the following is the most likely initial step in the pathogenesis of his condition?
C. Endothelial injury and dysfunction
17A 60-year-old female with a history of smoking and diabetes mellitus presents with intermittent claudication (leg pain or cramping that occurs during physical activity and improves with rest). Which of the following best describes the role of oxidized LDL in the development of her condition?
B. It acts as a chemotactic factor for monocytes
18A 70-year-old male with coronary artery disease is found to have a significant atherosclerotic plaque in his left anterior descending artery. Histologically, the plaque shows a fibrous cap with underlying lipid-laden macrophages. What is the primary composition of the fibrous cap?
A. Collagen and smooth muscle cells
19A 65-year-old male with a history of hyperlipidemia experiences a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his acute event?
C. Thrombosis overlying a ruptured plaque
20A 58-year-old female with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. Which of the following growth factors is primarily responsible for smooth muscle cell proliferation within atherosclerotic plaques?
A. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
21A 60-year-old male dies suddenly, and an autopsy is performed. The gross examination of his heart reveals a transmural infarct in the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Which artery is most likely occluded?
C. Left anterior descending artery
22A 55-year-old female with a history of myocardial infarction has an autopsy revealing coagulative necrosis in the affected myocardium. How many hours post-infarction is this finding most consistent with?
C. 12-24 hours
23A 70-year-old male dies of complications from a myocardial infarction. Histological examination of the myocardium shows prominent neutrophilic infiltration. What is the most likely time frame post-MI for this finding?
C. 1-3 days
24A 62-year-old female experiences a myocardial infarction. At autopsy, her heart shows extensive macrophage infiltration and phagocytosis of dead myocytes. How many days post-MI is this finding most consistent with?
C. 5-7 days
25A 58-year-old male dies one month after a myocardial infarction. The autopsy reveals a fibrous scar in the infarcted area. Which of the following is most consistent with this finding?
E. More than 2 weeks post-MI
26A 65-year-old female dies suddenly from a myocardial infarction. Autopsy reveals pallor of the myocardial tissue with dark mottling. How many hours post-MI is this finding most consistent with?
C. 12-24 hours
27A 68-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction develops persistent chest pain 2 days later, associated with a friction rub on physical examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
C. Acute fibrinous pericarditis
28A 64-year-old male presents with acute chest pain radiating to his left arm. An ECG shows ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF indicative of an inferior wall myocardial infarction. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
B. Right coronary artery
29A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is found to have a ventricular aneurysm on follow-up echocardiography. What is the most likely time frame post-MI for the development of this complication?
E. 1-3 months
30A 55-year-old male develops acute mitral regurgitation 5 days after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
B. Papillary muscle rupture
31A 70-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction presents with sudden onset of chest pain and hypotension. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Left ventricular free wall rupture
32A patient is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction and 24 hours later develops a pericardial friction rub and chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward. What is the most likely cause?
B. Acute pericarditis
33A 70-year-old female presents with a fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a pericardial friction rub six weeks after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
B. Dressler syndrome
34A sixty-eight year-old retired executive presents to your office with complaint of substernal chest pain described as a heaviness with radiation to the left arm. It is associated with shortness of breath. It occurs each time the patient walks four blocks or up two flights of stairs, and resolves with five to ten minutes of rest. He has Type II diabetes, hypertension, and is obese. He quit smoking 20 years ago. He drinks alcohol heavily. His father was diagnosed with coronary artery disease at the age of 60. His mother died from complications of an autoimmune disease. What are the risk factors for coronary artery disease in THIS patient?
The non-modifiable risk factors are his age. The Family history is not significant. It would be significant if his father had Coronary artery disease prior to age 55. The modifiable risk factors he has that we know from the case are that he has Diabetes, Hypertension and that he is Obese. Smoking is no longer a risk factor for him as he quit 20 years ago.
35A 65 year old male attorney develops severe retrosternal pain that radiates to his shoulder with nausea, and eventually collapses. He regains consciousness, but his family calls an ambulance. On exam in the ED, his blood pressure is 122/68, heart rate 87 and regular. The rest of his exam is normal. He is taken to the coronary unit of the hospital. All of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction in the above patient EXCEPT: A. ST segment depression on Electrocardiogram B. Troponin elevation C. Retrosternal discomfort D. Peaked T Waves and Pathologic Q waves on Electrocardiogram
A. ST segment depression on Electrocardiogram
36Which cardiac marker provides prognostic information in patients with coronary heart disease?
Troponin
37Each of the two cells represented by the graph below is the same size. Which most likely has the thicker membrane?
Cell 2 has the smaller slope. Therefore cell 2 needs less charge, and therefore less current, to increase the membrane potential to a given voltage. Cell 2 is therefore easier to depolarize.
38A resting membrane has the following permeability to the listed ions: Ion Permeability Relative to Na+ A Na+ 1 B K+ 25 C Mg2+ 50 D Ca2+ 0.5 The resting potential will be closest to the equilibrium potential of which ion?
C. Mg2+ The resting membrane potential will be closest to the equilibrium potential for the ion with the highest permeability. Physiologically this is usually K+ because the cell has many open K+ channels at rest. However, in theory it can be any ion.
39Maria P., a 58-year-old female with a history of chronic kidney disease and hypertension, presents to the emergency department with muscle weakness and palpitations. She recently had a change in her medication regimen, including the addition of an ACE inhibitor. On examination, she appears fatigued, with a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and a heart rate of 95 bpm. An electrocardiogram shows peaked T waves and a widened QRS complex. Laboratory results reveal a plasma potassium level of 6 mM, indicating hyperkalemia. Assuming that the [K+] inside her cells (cytosol) is 140 mM What is the K+ equilibrium potential?
EK = 61 mV/1 log(6/140) EK = -83 mV
40The cell membrane of Maria P.’s cells are less excitable. What is this due to?
a. decreased Na+ channel availability
41Thomas R., a 62-year-old male with a history of ischemic heart disease and recent myocardial infarction, presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of frequent episodes of palpitations and dizziness. A 24-hour Holter monitor reveals frequent premature ventricular contractions and non-sustained ventricular tachycardia. Given his symptoms and findings, he is prescribed lidocaine, a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, to stabilize the cardiac membrane and suppress ventricular arrhythmias. The class IB antiarrhythmics bind to the open and inactivated Na+ channels only. What is the state (open or closed) of the gates of fast Na+ channels and delayed rectifier K+ channels at a typical muscle resting potential of -90 mV?
a. Na+ channel activation gate: Closed, Na+ channel inactivation gate: Open, K+ channel activation gate: Closed
42Jane L., a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history, presents to the urgent care clinic after cutting her hand on a piece of broken glass while washing dishes. The laceration on her right palm is approximately 4 cm long and moderately deep but without any signs of tendon damage or foreign bodies. To facilitate wound cleaning and suturing, the attending physician administers a local anesthetic, lidocaine, around the wound site. What is a likely mechanism of action of the local anesthetic?
d. decreased Na+ channel opening
43Why doesn’t a delayed rectifier K channel need an inactivation gate to close like the Na channel does?
Voltage-gated K+ channels have only a single activation gate. They open upon membrane depolarization but do so more slowly than voltage-gated Na+ channels. They also close gradually upon membrane repolarization. These channels do not require an inactivation gate because the efflux of K+ ions itself repolarizes the membrane, which then causes the activation gate to close.
44Which is NOT a characteristic of all action potentials?
e. Action potentials have a constant, characteristic threshold potential within each tissue
45The AV nodal delay is due to the much slower propagation of the action potential through the AV nodal cells when compared to the atrial and ventricular cells of the heart. Which of the following is most likely to be a significant factor in the slow conduction velocity of the AV node?
a. Phase 0 of the AV nodal action potential is carried by Ca2+ current, not Na+ current
46Purkinje cells spread the action potential rapidly along the endocardium so that it can propagate easily from inside to outside across the ventricular wall, causing a nice, even contraction. What is a factor that could be responsible for the rapid action potential propagation in Purkinje fibers?
c. Purkinje cells have a higher cell diameter than ventricular cells
47What channel is most responsible for the fact that the resting potential of a cardiac cell is so negative (-90 mV)?
b. The cardiac cell at rest has a high permeability to K+
48The skeletal muscle and nerve action potentials rapidly depolarize. However, the cardiac muscle action potential is very long, having a plateau phase. What is the explanation for this?
The L-type Ca2+ channel and the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger (3 Na+ in for 1 Ca2+ out) both tend to depolarize the membrane. This opposes the delayed rectifier channels (mostly IKr and IKs in the ventricle) and makes the voltage “hang up”. The result is a plateau phase where the opposing currents “cancel out” and the voltage decreases only very slowly.
49Emily R., a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history, presents to the emergency department with complaints of rapid heart rate, palpitations, and anxiety. She reports that these symptoms started suddenly after taking an over-the-counter cold medication containing pseudoephedrine. On examination, her heart rate is 120 beats per minute, blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and an electrocardiogram (EKG) confirms sinus tachycardia. The physician explains that the pseudoephedrine likely caused excessive stimulation of her beta receptors, leading to the increased heart rate. How β-adrenergic stimulation of the SA nodal cells results in an increase in heart rate?
d. Increased “funny” current, If
50David L., a 45-year-old male with a history of intermittent palpitations and fainting spells, presents to the cardiology clinic for evaluation. He reports experiencing episodes of dizziness and near-syncope, particularly during physical exertion. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the cardiac chloride channels, specifically the CLCN1 gene, which is known to decrease chloride ion conductance. Which would be the most prominent effect upon the EKG due to this mutation?
A mutation in the cardiac chloride channels (CLCN1 gene) leading to decreased chloride ion conductance would most prominently cause a prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram (EKG)
51A 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of severe, crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis and shortness of breath. He reports that the pain began suddenly while he was resting. His blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and his heart rate is 110 beats per minute. An electrocardiogram (EKG) shows ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, suggestive of an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Initial laboratory results reveal elevated cardiac troponin levels. The patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. Ventricular myocytes in hearts that are affected by ischemia have longer action potential plateaus. Changes in which channel is likely to cause such an increase?
a. Less inactivation of INa
52What would you expect to happen to ECl in this patient with ischemic heart disease?
a. Higher (less negative)
53What is metabolism?
**Metabolism** is the **sum of chemical reactions** in a cell, tissue, or body, built by purposeful enzyme pathways.
54What is the purpose of metabolism?
Its purpose is to **generate energy from fuel molecules to feed all cells** and synthesizereak down biomolecules.
55How can energy generation occur?
**Energy Generation** can occur in two main ways.
56What are the conditions for anaerobic energy generation?
**Anaerobic conditions**: **Without oxygen and mitochondria**.
57What is the only energy-generating pathway under anaerobic conditions?
The only energy-generating pathway is **glycolysis**, which utilizes glucose to produce a **small amount of energy (2 ATP)** and **lactic acid**.
58Which cells rely on glycolysis for energy?
Cells lacking mitochondria or oxygen can only rely on glycolysis.
59Examples of cells that rely on glycolysis for energy are?
Examples include **mature erythrocytes, white skeletal muscle cells, retina and sclera cells, and chondrocytes**.
60What are the requirements for aerobic energy generation?
**Aerobic conditions**: Requires the **presence of mitochondria and oxygen**.
61What does aerobic energy generation produce and involve?
This process produces **much more energy** and involves the **Pyruvate Dehydrogenase (PDH) complex, the Krebs cycle (TCA), and terminal oxidation**.
62What fuel molecules can cells with mitochondria and oxygen utilize?
Cells with both mitochondria and sufficient oxygen can utilize **glucose, fatty acids, and ketone bodies** (during extended fasting/starvation) for energy.
63What are the major energy-generating reactions in mitochondria?
The major energy-generating reactions in mitochondria are the **Pyruvate Dehydrogenase (PDH) complex, fatty acid beta-oxidation, the Krebs cycle (TCA), and terminal oxidation (electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation)**.
64Where are mitochondrial energy-generating processes localized?
These processes are **localized in the mitochondria**.
65What is the **outer mitochondrial membrane (OMM)**?
The **outer mitochondrial membrane (OMM)** is simple and permeable to most biomolecules.
66What is the **inner mitochondrial membrane (IMM)**?
The **inner mitochondrial membrane (IMM)** is complex, semi-permeable, heavily folded into cristae, and contains most of the electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation enzymes, dehydrogenases, and transport systems.
67How is transport across the IMM regulated?
Transport across the IMM is regulated by **transporters** (e.g., for ATP/ADP, Pi, TCA intermediates) and **substrate shuttles** (for reduced coenzymes like NADH from the cytosol).
68What is the location of the **Pyruvate Dehydrogenase (PDH) Complex**?
**Location**: **Mitochondrial matrix (mitosol)**.
69What is the function of the PDH complex?
**Function**: Catalyzes a **multiple-step, irreversible reaction** that converts **pyruvate into acetyl-CoA, carbon dioxide (CO2), and NADH**.
70What happens to acetyl-CoA and NADH produced by PDH?
Acetyl-CoA then enters the Krebs cycle, and NADH enters terminal oxidation for ATP generation.
71What coenzymes does the PDH complex require?
**Coenzymes**: Requires **vitamins B1 (thiamine pyrophosphate), B2 (FAD), B3 (NAD+), B5 (CoA), and lipoic acid**.
72What is important for proper PDH function regarding diet?
**Eat your water-soluble vitamins daily** for proper PDH function.
73How is the PDH complex regulated?
**Regulation**: It is a **heavily regulated system**.
74What inhibits the PDH complex by feedback?
**Feedback inhibition** by its products: **acetyl-CoA and NADH**.
75How is PDH regulated by phosphorylation/dephosphorylation?
**Phosphorylation/Dephosphorylation**: The active form is dephosphorylated, while the inactive form is phosphorylated. A protein kinase, stimulated by ATP, acetyl-CoA, and NADH, inactivates PDH by phosphorylation, while pyruvate inhibits this kinase.
76What is **PDH Deficiency**?
**PDH Deficiency**: A **mitochondrial disorder** inherited in an **X-linked dominant manner**, it is the **most common cause of congenital lactic acidosis**.
77What happens to pyruvate in PDH deficiency?
Due to the deficiency, pyruvate cannot be converted to acetyl-CoA; instead, it forms **lactate via lactate dehydrogenase**, leading to **chronic lactic acidosis**.
78What are the elevated serum levels in children with PDH deficiency?
Affected children often show **elevated serum levels of lactate, pyruvate, and alanine**, and frequently exhibit **severe neurological defects, often resulting in death**.
79What is the location of the **Krebs Cycle (TCA/Citric Acid Cycle)**?
**Location**: **Mitochondrial matrix (mitosol)**.
80What are the sources of acetyl-CoA for the Krebs cycle?
**Sources of Acetyl-CoA**: Produced by the PDH complex (from pyruvate), fatty acid beta-oxidation, and certain amino acids.
81What is the **catabolic function** of the Krebs cycle?
**Catabolic Function**: The cycle performs the **complete oxidation of acetyl-CoA to CO2**, generating **1 GTP molecule** and **reduced cofactors (3 NADH and 1 FADH2)** per acetyl-CoA molecule.
82What happens to NADH and FADH2 from the Krebs cycle?
NADH and FADH2 are then channeled to terminal oxidation for ATP production.
83What is the **anabolic function** of the Krebs cycle?
**Anabolic Function**: Krebs cycle intermediates serve as **precursors for various biosynthetic processes**, including gluconeogenesis, amino acid synthesis, fatty acid synthesis, and steroid synthesis.
84What are **anaplerotic (filling) reactions**?
**Anaplerotic (Filling) Reactions**: These reactions replenish TCA intermediates that are removed for biosynthetic purposes.
85What is the most important anaplerotic reaction?
The most important step is the **pyruvate carboxylase (PC) reaction, which converts pyruvate into oxaloacetate**.
86What is the energetic yield of one acetyl-CoA molecule entering the Krebs cycle?
**Energetics**: One acetyl-CoA molecule entering the Krebs cycle yields a total of **12 ATPs** (11 from reduced cofactors in terminal oxidation and 1 from GTP via substrate-level phosphorylation).
87How is the Krebs cycle regulated?
**Regulation**: Regulated by the supply of acetyl-CoA, PDH regulation, the availability of NAD+, FAD, GDP, and Pi, and the coupling to terminal oxidation (availability of ADP+Pi and oxygen). Feedback inhibition by products like NADH, succinyl-CoA, and ATP also plays a role.
88What are key regulatory enzymes of the Krebs cycle?
Key regulatory enzymes include citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase.
89What is the consequence of genetic abnormalities of TCA enzymes?
**Genetic Abnormalities**: Genetic abnormalities of TCA enzymes are very rare and often incompatible with life due to the pathway's critical role.
90What is **Terminal Oxidation (Electron Transport Chain + Oxidative Phosphorylation)**?
**Definition**: It is the **last step in extracting energy from fuel molecules**.
91What are the two parts of terminal oxidation?
It consists of two parts: **Electron Transport (Part 1)** where electron carriers stepwise transfer electrons and protons from **reduced coenzymes (NADH and FADH2) to molecular oxygen (O2)**, which is the final electron acceptor; and **Oxidative Phosphorylation (Part 2)** where this reducing power is then converted into **ATP energy**.
92Where is terminal oxidation located?
**Location**: **Mitochondrial inner membrane**.
93What are the sources of NADH and FADH2 for terminal oxidation?
**Sources of NADH and FADH2**: These reduced coenzymes come from the PDH complex, the TCA cycle, fatty acid beta-oxidation (all in the mitosol), and cytosolic processes (like glycolysis) via mitochondrial shuttles.
94What are the components of the Electron Transport Chain?
**Electron Transport Chain Components**: Comprises **4 large multi-subunit enzyme complexes (Complex I-IV), coenzyme Q, and cytochrome C**.
95What is important to consume for proper ETC function?
Remember to **eat your vitamins (NAD+, FAD, FMN) and minerals (iron and copper)** for proper ETC function.
96How do electrons flow in the ETC?
**Electron Flow**: NADH enters at Complex I; FADH2 enters at coenzyme Q; electrons are transferred sequentially through Complexes, CoQ, and Cytochrome c, finally to Complex IV, which transfers electrons to **molecular oxygen (O2)**, producing water.
97How is a proton gradient created in the ETC?
**Proton Gradient**: As electrons are transferred, **protons are ejected from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space at Complexes I, III, and IV**. This creates an **electrochemical gradient (proton gradient)** across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
98How is ATP synthesized using the proton gradient?
**ATP Synthesis**: Protons flow back into the matrix through the **F0F1-ATPase (Complex V)**, located in the inner membrane. The energy from this proton gradient is used to synthesize **ATP from ADP and Pi**.
99What is this process called?
This process is known as **chemiosmotic coupling**.
100What is the energetic yield of NADH and FADH2 in terminal oxidation?
**Energetics**: Oxidation of **NADH yields approximately 3 ATPs**, while **FADH2 yields approximately 2 ATPs**.
101What is the relationship between ATP production and electron transport?
**Coupling**: ATP production is **tightly coupled to electron transport**; inhibition of one process stops the other.
102What is uncoupling in terminal oxidation?
**Uncoupling**: Electron flow and ATP synthesis can be **uncoupled** (e.g., in brown adipose tissue by uncoupling protein 1, UCP-1) to generate **heat** instead of ATP.
103What are the continuous supply requirements for cardiac muscle cells?
**Cardiac muscle cells require a continuous supply of ATP** and **continuous oxygen supply** to function.
104How aerobic are cardiac muscle cells?
They are **highly aerobic**, with mitochondria making up about half of their volume.
105What are the energy reserves for cardiac muscle cells?
**Energy Reserves**: Include **glycogen** (stored glucose for glycolysis) and **phosphocreatine** (a high-energy chemical bond that rapidly hydrolyzes to yield ATP).
106What are the normal energy sources for cardiac muscle cells?
**Normal Energy Sources**: Under normal conditions, cardiac muscle cells favor **fatty acids** due to their high energy yield, but also use glucose.
107What are the energy sources for cardiac muscle cells during starvation?
**Energy Sources During Starvation**: **fatty acids and ketone bodies** become the major energy sources for cardiac muscle.
108What is **Myocardial Ischemia**?
**Myocardial Ischemia**: Occurs when the **oxygen supply to cardiac muscle is lower than normal**.
109What happens to glycolysis during myocardial ischemia?
Glycolysis increases, producing **lactic acid**.
110What does lactic acid cause during ischemia?
Lactic acid lowers pH, leading to **lactic acidosis**.
111How is pain generated during ischemia?
Excess protons (H+) stimulate **pain nerve cells (nociceptors)**, which generates pain (e.g., angina pectoris).
112What is **Angina Pectoris**?
**Angina Pectoris**: Defined as **chest pain associated with reversible myocardial ischemia**.
113What causes Angina Pectoris?
It results from an **imbalance between the demand for and supply of blood flow/oxygen to cardiac muscle cells**, most commonly caused by **narrowing of the coronary arteries due to atherosclerosis** or temporary spasms.
114What are the characteristics of angina pectoris pain?
The pain is described as substernal heaviness, often radiating to the left shoulder, arm, jaw, or neck. Attacks typically occur with exertion, last 1 to 15 minutes, and are relieved by resting.
115What is **Myocardial Infarction (MI)**?
**Myocardial Infarction (MI)**: Occurs when **ischemia persists long enough to cause severe damage (necrosis, or cell death) to the heart muscle**.
116What commonly causes MI?
A **blood clot (thrombus) forms at the site of artery narrowing and completely obstructs the vessel**, leading to tissue death and more severe, longer-lasting pain.
117What are the major **Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) Risk Factors**?
**Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) Risk Factors**: Major risk factors include **diabetes, smoking, hypertension, a family history of premature CHD, high serum triglyceride levels, and elevated serum cholesterol levels (particularly LDL)**.
118What are Plasma Lipoproteins?
Plasma Lipoproteins: These are **delivery vehicles for lipids** (triglycerides, cholesterol, etc.).
119What is the structure of lipoproteins?
**Structure**: Lipoproteins have a hydrophilic outer layer (apoprotein, phospholipids, cholesterol) and a hydrophobic inner nucleus (triglycerides, cholesterol ester).
120What are **LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein)**?
**LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein)**: Primarily **delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissues**.
121What risk does LDL pose?
It poses a **direct risk for atherogenesis** and is often called "bad cholesterol," especially if it circulates in the blood for prolonged periods.
122What is **HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein)**?
**HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein)**: Synthesized by the liver and intestine.
123What is the essential role of HDL?
Plays an **essential role in "picking up" cholesterol from the periphery and delivering it to the liver (reverse cholesterol transport)**.
124Why is HDL known as "good cholesterol"?
HDL is known as "good cholesterol" for its role in fighting atherogenesis.
125What lipoproteins are associated with increased CHD risk?
Lipoproteins rich in cholesterol (LDL, VLDL remnants, chylomicron remnants) are associated with an **increased risk of CHD**.
126What is the risk association with HDL?
HDL, conversely, is associated with a **decreased risk**.
127What is a normal **Total cholesterol (TC)** value?
**Total cholesterol (TC)**: Normal values are 120 - 200 mg/dL.
128What does Total Cholesterol primarily reflect?
Primarily reflects LDL levels.
129What is a normal **HDL cholesterol (HDLC)** value?
**HDL cholesterol (HDLC)**: Normal values are > 40 mg/dL.
130What is a normal **Triglycerides (TG)** value?
**Triglycerides (TG)**: Normal values are 70 - 150 mg/dL.
131What is a normal **LDL cholesterol (LDLC)** value?
**LDL cholesterol (LDLC)**: Calculated, normal values are < 100 mg/dL.
132What is **Atherosclerosis**?
**Atherosclerosis**: It is a **disorder of the arterial wall**.
133What characterizes atherosclerosis?
**Characterized by**: 1. **Accumulation of cholesteryl esters in cells derived from the monocyte-macrophage lineage**; 2. **Smooth muscle cell proliferation**; 3. **Fibrosis**.
134What is the result of these processes in atherosclerosis?
These processes result in **narrowed blood vessels**.
135What initiates plaque formation?
High circulating lipids initiate a cascade of events.
136What is the first step in plaque formation?
**Injured endothelial cells** trigger monocyte migration and macrophage formation.
137How does oxidized LDL contribute to plaque formation?
**Oxidized LDL** more easily enters the intima and is engulfed by macrophages via **scavenger receptors**.
138What do macrophages transform into during plaque formation?
Macrophages transform into **foam cells**, which become trapped in the intima.
139What stimulates smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation?
**Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)** and other growth factors stimulate **smooth muscle cell migration from the media to the intima and proliferation**.
140What does the deposition of collagen and other ECM proteins by smooth muscle cells lead to?
Smooth muscle cells deposit **collagen** and other extracellular matrix proteins, leading to **arterial wall thickening and hardening**.
141What does the resultant plaque cause?
The resultant plaque narrows the blood vessel, decreasing blood flow and causing ischemia.
142What happens if plaque ruptures?
**Plaque rupture can initiate blood clotting**, which may lead to complete arterial blockage and a myocardial infarction.
143What are the **General Characteristics of Good Biomarkers**?
**General Characteristics of Good Biomarkers**: Tissue-specific, time of appearance, time of disappearance, and availability of reliable assays.
144What are the **General Characteristics of Good Biomarker Assays**?
**General Characteristics of Good Biomarker Assays**: Widely available and inexpensive, sensitive, specific, high positive predictive value (PPV), quantitative, precise (reproducible), and clearly distinguish between normal and pathologic levels.
145What is the definition of a biomarker assay's sensitivity?
**Sensitive**: The test's ability to designate individuals with the disease as positive.
146What is the definition of a biomarker assay's specificity?
**Specific**: The test's ability to designate individuals without the disease as negative.
147What is **High Positive Predictive Value (PPV)**?
**High Positive Predictive Value (PPV)**: The probability that a positive test result correctly identifies an individual who actually has the condition of interest.
148What does "precise" mean for a biomarker assay?
**Precise (reproducible)**: Results show less than 10% difference between repeated or parallel measures.
149What is considered a normal level for a biomarker?
Normal is considered the 99th percentile or upper reference limit.
150What are **Protein Isoforms**?
**Protein Isoforms**: Proteins (or enzymes) that fulfill the same function but differ slightly in amino acid composition due to arising from different genetic loci.
151What are the **Key Biomarkers for MI**?
**Key Biomarkers for MI**: High-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI), conventional cardiac troponin I (cTnI), and Creatine kinase (CK)-MB.
152Describe the profile of **High-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI)** after an MI.
**High-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI)**: **Elevated <1 to 3 hours after MI**, **peaks 12 to 24 hours**, and **returns to normal in a variable period up to 14 days**.
153What is the newest FDA-approved biomarker assay?
It is the newest FDA-approved biomarker assay (2017) and is used at Rush.
154Describe the profile of **Conventional cardiac troponin I (cTnI)** after an MI.
**Conventional cardiac troponin I (cTnI)**: **Elevated at 4 hours after MI**, **peaks around 24 hours**, and **returns to normal in 7 to 10 days**.
155Why is conventional cTnI still relevant?
Though replaced by high-sensitivity assays in clinical labs, it remains relevant for Step 1 exams.
156Describe the profile of **Creatine kinase (CK)-MB** after an MI.
**Creatine kinase (CK)-MB**: **Elevated 6 to 12 hours after MI**, **peaks 16 to 24 hours**, and **returns to normal in 48 hours**.
157What is **Plasmin**?
**Plasmin**: A natural enzyme in the blood that **dissolves clots**.
158How does plasmin circulate?
It circulates in an inactive form called **plasminogen**.
159What is **Tissue Plasminogen Activator (t-PA)**?
**Tissue Plasminogen Activator (t-PA)**: A therapeutically administered enzyme that **converts inactive plasminogen into active plasmin**.
160What is the **Morphology** of **Cardiac Muscle Tissue**?
**Morphology**: Fibers typically have **one, sometimes two, centrally located nuclei**. The cells **branch** (note the forks in cells). **Cross-striations are present**.
161What is the mitochondrial content of cardiac muscle cells?
The sarcoplasm is rich in **many elongated mitochondria**, which constitute approximately **40% of the cardiac muscle cell volume** (compared to ~2% in skeletal muscle).
162Why is high mitochondrial content essential for cardiac muscle?
This high mitochondrial content is essential to **power the constant contraction of the heart** with continuous ATP supply.
163What are **Intercalated Disks** in cardiac muscle?
**Intercalated Disks**: These are **specialized junctions that connect adjacent cardiac muscle cells end-to-end**.
164What junctions do intercalated disks contain?
They contain: **Fascia adherens (FA)** and **desmosomes (D)** which anchor the cytoskeletons, and **Gap junctions (GJ)** which allow **ions to pass directly between adjacent fibers, transmitting electrical impulses** for coordinated contraction.
165What is the **capacity for repair** of cardiac muscle tissue?
**Capacity for Repair**: Cardiac muscle tissue generally **does not regenerate**. Damaged tissue from an infarction is typically replaced with a **fibrous scar**.
166What is the **Location** of **Smooth Muscle Tissue**?
**Location**: Found in the **walls of visceral organs and blood vessels**.
167What is the **Morphology** of smooth muscle tissue?
**Morphology**: Cells are **fusiform (spindle-shaped)** with a **single, centrally located nucleus**. They **lack striations (smooth)** because their contractile proteins are not arranged in sarcomeres.
168What is the **Control** of smooth muscle contraction?
**Control**: Smooth muscle contraction is modulated by autonomic innervation, hormones, or local signals (e.g., stretch). Smooth muscle cells primarily rely on **influx of external Ca2+** for contraction.
169What is the **Growth and Regeneration** capacity of smooth muscle cells?
**Growth and Regeneration**: Smooth muscle cells **maintain the potential to divide mitotically** for growth and repair. They **readily regenerate** to repair damaged tissue. Smooth muscle tissue mass can also increase through both **hyperplasia and hypertrophy**.
170What is **Transmembrane Potential (Vm)**?
**Transmembrane Potential (Vm)**: The difference in electrical potential across the cell membrane, calculated as **Vm = Vi - Ve** (intracellular potential minus extracellular potential).
171What are typical **Resting Potentials** for cardiac and skeletal muscle cells?
**Resting Potentials**: **Cardiac and skeletal muscle cells typically have resting potentials around -90 mV**, while nerve cells are usually around -70 mV.
172What is **Electroneutrality**?
**Electroneutrality**: The principle that the number of positive and negative charges is equal in the bulk intracellular and extracellular solutions.
173What is the **Nernst Equation**?
**Nernst Equation**: This equation describes the **equilibrium potential (Ex)** for a single permeable ion, which is the electrical potential required to balance the concentration gradient for that ion across the membrane.
174What is the Nernst Equation formula?
The equation is **Ex = (61mV / z) log ([X]e / [X]i)**, where 'z' is the ion's valence, '[X]e' is the external concentration, and '[X]i' is the internal concentration.
175What are typical equilibrium potentials?
**Typical Equilibrium Potentials**: **Na+ ~ +60 mV, K+ ~ -95 mV, Cl- ~ -50 to -85mV, Ca2+ ~ +130 mV**.
176What is **Membrane Capacitance (Cm)**?
**Membrane Capacitance (Cm)**: A measure of **how much charge is needed to create a given membrane potential**.
177How does capacitance relate to membrane area?
**Capacitance increases linearly with membrane area**; larger cells have higher capacitance.
178How does capacitance relate to membrane thickness?
**Capacitance decreases with effective membrane thickness**; thicker membranes have lower capacitance. Myelin, for example, effectively increases membrane thickness, reducing capacitance.
179What has the greatest effect on transmembrane potential when multiple ions are permeable?
The **most permeable ions (those with the highest conductance)** have the **greatest effect on the transmembrane potential**.
180How is **Chloride (Cl-)** distributed in many cells?
In many cells, chloride is **passively distributed** across the membrane (meaning it is not actively transported).
181What is the relationship between chloride equilibrium potential and membrane potential at rest when chloride is passively distributed?
In such cases, the **chloride equilibrium potential (ECl) is equal to the membrane potential (Vm)** at rest.
182What is the effect of the **Na+/K+ Pump**?
This pump is **electrogenic**, meaning it moves **3 Na+ ions out of the cell and 2 K+ ions into the cell** for every molecule of ATP hydrolyzed.
183What are the characteristics of **Action Potentials (AP) in Nerve and Skeletal Muscle**?
**Characteristics**: APs are **all-or-none**, **non-decremental**, **unidirectional**, and characterized by **refractory periods**.
184How are APs initiated?
APs are initiated when the membrane is depolarized to its **threshold potential**.
185What causes the **Rising Phase (Phase 0 / Upstroke)** of an AP?
**Rising Phase (Phase 0 / Upstroke)**: Caused by the **rapid opening (activation) of voltage-gated Na+ channels**. This process involves **positive feedback**.
186What causes the **Falling Phase (Downstroke / Repolarization)** of an AP?
**Falling Phase (Downstroke / Repolarization)**: Caused by the **inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels** and the **opening (activation) of voltage-gated K+ channels**.
187What are the characteristics of **Voltage-Gated Na+ Channels**?
**Voltage-Gated Na+ Channels**: Possess **two gates**: an **activation gate** and an **inactivation gate**. **Both gates must be open** for Na+ ions to cross the membrane. At the **resting potential (~-90 mV)**, the **activation gate is closed and the inactivation gate is open**.
188What are the characteristics of **Voltage-Gated K+ Channels**?
**Voltage-Gated K+ Channels**: Have **only a single activation gate**. They open upon membrane depolarization but do so **more slowly** than voltage-gated Na+ channels. They **do not require an inactivation gate** because K+ efflux itself repolarizes the membrane.
189What are **Refractory Periods**?
**Refractory Periods**: These periods ensure **unidirectional propagation** of action potentials by preventing immediate re-excitation.
190What is the **Absolute refractory period**?
**Absolute refractory period**: During this time, it is **absolutely impossible to produce another action potential** because essentially all voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated until the membrane potential largely returns to its resting level.
191What is the **Relative refractory period**?
**Relative refractory period**: During this time, it is **relatively more difficult (but not impossible)** to produce another action potential because K+ permeability remains elevated.
192What is **Threshold Potential**?
**Threshold Potential**: The membrane potential (always depolarized relative to rest) that is **just sufficient to produce an action potential**.
193What influences the threshold potential?
**Threshold is not a fixed value**; it is influenced by the **resting membrane permeability to K+ and/or Cl-**, the **number of voltage-gated Na+ channels available to open**, and the **rate at which the membrane depolarizes**.
194What is the **Basic Mechanism** of Action Potential Propagation?
**Basic Mechanism**: A region of the membrane undergoing an action potential acts as a stimulus, depolarizing neighboring regions and causing them to initiate their own action potentials.
195What **Factors Influence Propagation Speed**?
**Factors Influencing Propagation Speed**: **Cell/fiber diameter** (larger leads to faster), **resting membrane resistance (Rm)** (higher leads to faster), **intracellular longitudinal resistance (Ri)** (lower leads to faster), **number of voltage-gated Na+ channels** (higher density leads to faster), and **membrane capacitance (Cm)** (lower leads to faster).
196What is **Myelination (in Nerve Axons)**?
**Myelination (in Nerve Axons)**: Myelin is formed by **oligodendrocytes (in the CNS) or Schwann cells (in the PNS)**, which repeatedly wrap around nerve cell axons.
197What are **Nodes of Ranvier**?
**Nodes of Ranvier**: Small, exposed regions (a few µm) along the axon that contain **high densities of voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels**.
198What is the effect of myelin on membrane resistance and capacitance?
Myelin **increases the axonal membrane resistance and decreases its effective capacitance** in the internodal regions.
199What is **Saltatory Conduction**?
**Saltatory Conduction**: Action potential conduction in myelinated nerves is **discontinuous**, essentially **"jumping" from node to node**.
200What is a characteristic of **Cardiac Action Potential** duration?
Cardiac APs are **much longer in duration** than those in nerve and skeletal muscle. They are described in **phases 0-4**.
201What is **Phase 0 (Rapid Upstroke)** in Ventricular and Atrial Myocytes?
**Phase 0 (Rapid Upstroke)**: Primarily due to the **rapid activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels**.
202What is **Phase 1 (Early Partial Repolarization)** in Ventricular and Atrial Myocytes?
**Phase 1 (Early Partial Repolarization)**: Caused by the **inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels** and the **activation of transient outward K+ channels (Ito1)**.
203What is **Phase 2 (Prolonged Plateau)** in Ventricular and Atrial Myocytes?
**Phase 2 (Prolonged Plateau)**: The membrane potential remains relatively stable (near 0 to +10 mV) for 100-300 milliseconds.
204What is the **Key Inward Current** during the cardiac action potential plateau?
**Key Inward Current**: Maintained primarily by the **opening of L-type Ca2+ channels (ICa,L)**, which activate slowly and inactivate very slowly, triggering contraction and maintaining depolarization. The **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger** also contributes a depolarizing inward current.
205What is **Phase 3 ("Rapid" Repolarization)** in Ventricular and Atrial Myocytes?
**Phase 3 ("Rapid" Repolarization)**: A relatively rapid return to the resting membrane potential.
206What causes Phase 3 repolarization?
**Causes**: **Gradual inactivation and deactivation of L-type Ca2+ channels** and a **gradual increase in voltage-gated K+ currents** (especially IKs). The IK1 current also increases as the membrane repolarizes, aiding in repolarization.
207What is **Phase 4 (Resting Potential)** in Ventricular and Atrial Myocytes?
**Phase 4 (Resting Potential)**: In ventricular and atrial myocytes, this is the period when the membrane is at its **resting potential, typically around -90 mV**. At this phase, **K+ permeability is highest**, primarily due to IK1 channels.
208What do SA and AV Nodal Cells exhibit instead of a true resting potential?
These cells exhibit **no true resting potential**; instead, they show **continuous phase 4 depolarization**.
209What is **Phase 4 (Spontaneous Depolarization / Pacemaker Activity)** in SA and AV Nodal Cells?
**Phase 4 (Spontaneous Depolarization / Pacemaker Activity)**: This slow depolarization leads to the initiation of the next action potential. It involves the **opening of pacemaker channels (If)** and the **characteristics of IK1** and **T-type Ca2+ channels (ICa,T)**.
210What are **Pacemaker channels (If)**?
**Opening of pacemaker channels (If)**: These "funny" channels activate when the membrane **hyperpolarizes** (becomes more negative than -35 mV), causing a depolarizing inward current.
211What supports **Phase 0 (Upstroke)** in SA and AV nodal cells?
The upstroke in SA and AV nodal cells is **much more gradual** than in ventricular/atrial myocytes. It is primarily supported by **T-type and (more importantly) L-type Ca2+ channels**.
212What are the reasons for slow conduction velocity in SA/AV nodes?
Conduction through the SA node and especially the AV node is **quite slow**, resulting in the **AV nodal delay**. Reasons include absence of Na+ channels, low density of Ca2+ channels, and fewer gap junctions.
213What node is the normal pacemaker for the heart?
The SA node typically generates APs at a faster rate (~70/min) than the AV node (~50/min), making the **SA node the normal pacemaker for the entire heart**.
214What are the **Regulatory (Modulatory) Channels in the Heart**?
**Regulatory (Modulatory) Channels in the Heart**: ACh-activated K+ channel (IK,ACh), ATP-dependent K+ channel (IK,ATP), and cAMP-dependent Chloride channel (ICl,cAMP).
215What is the function of the **ACh-activated K+ channel (IK,ACh)**?
**ACh-activated K+ channel (IK,ACh)**: Activated by acetylcholine released from **parasympathetic (vagal) nerves**. This causes **hyperpolarization** of atrial and nodal tissues, which **slows the rate of spontaneous phase 4 depolarization and thus decreases heart rate**.
216When do **ATP-dependent K+ channels (IK,ATP)** open?
**ATP-dependent K+ channel (IK,ATP)**: These channels are normally closed but **open in response to low intracellular ATP levels**, which typically occurs during **ischemia**.
217What is the function of the **cAMP-dependent Chloride channel (ICl,cAMP)**?
**cAMP-dependent Chloride channel (ICl,cAMP)**: Activated by the **sympathetic nervous system**, this channel contributes to the **shortening of the cardiac action potential**.
218What is the difference in action potential generation for cardiac/smooth muscle vs. skeletal muscle?
Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle and many types of smooth muscle **do not require nervous system input to generate action potentials**; instead, they exhibit spontaneous rhythmic activity.
219What are the key EKG findings in **Hyperkalemia**?
**Key EKG findings**: **Peaked T waves and a widened QRS complex**.
220What is the mechanism for EKG changes in hyperkalemia?
These changes are primarily due to **decreased availability of voltage-gated Na+ channels (resting inactivation)**, which results from the progressive depolarization of the resting membrane potential caused by **elevated extracellular potassium concentration ([K+]e)**.
221What is **Arteriosclerosis**?
**Arteriosclerosis**: A **generic term indicating arterial wall thickening and loss of elasticity**.
222What is **Atheroma (Atherosclerotic Plaque)**?
**Atheroma (Atherosclerotic Plaque)**: These are **patchy intimal thickenings with lipid accumulation** in the arterial wall. They appear as raised white-to-yellow lesions composed of cells, extracellular matrix, and both intracellular and extracellular lipid.
223What is **Contraction Band Necrosis**?
**Contraction Band Necrosis**: This is a **type of necrosis unique to cardiac myocytes**. It is a **characteristic histologic finding of a very recent myocardial infarction**.
224What is **Reperfusion Injury**?
**Reperfusion Injury**: This phenomenon describes the **late restoration of blood flow into ischemic tissues** that paradoxically incites **even more extensive local myocardial damage**.
225What is **Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)**?
**Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)**: **narrowing of the coronary arteries** primarily caused by atherosclerotic obstruction of epicardial vessels, and rarely by spasms.
226When does **Symptomatic CAD** occur?
Occurs when narrowing **exceeds 65-70%**, potentially leading to **myocardial ischemia**.
227When does **Ischemia** develop?
**Ischemia**: Develops when the **demand for oxygen by the myocardium exceeds the supply**.
228What is **Stable Angina** characterized by?
**Stable Angina**: Characterized by **fixed narrowing of the arteries**, causing symptoms when oxygen demand outweighs supply. Symptoms are **relieved by rest**.
229What is **Unstable Angina**?
**Unstable Angina**: Involves the **disruption of an atherosclerotic plaque with transient thrombotic occlusion**. It presents as **new-onset, crescendo (increasing severity), or rest angina lasting >20 minutes**, or previous angina that is increasing in intensity, duration, and frequency. **Serum troponin is negative**.
230What are the **Non-modifiable Risk Factors** for CAD?
**Non-modifiable**: **Age, male gender, and a family history of premature CAD** (before age 55 in men and before age 65 in women).
231What are the **Modifiable Risk Factors** for CAD?
**Modifiable**: **Hyperlipidemia (particularly low-density lipoprotein, LDL), hypertension, diabetes mellitus, smoking (quitting can reduce risk), obesity, and physical inactivity**.
232What is the **Classic Presentation of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)**?
**Classic Presentation**: **Chest pain described as squeezing, heaviness, or tightness**, which is retrosternal and may **radiate to the back, jaw, or left shoulder**. It can be associated with left arm numbness, **nausea**, diaphoresis, or shortness of breath.
233What are **Atypical Presentations** of ACS?
**Atypical Presentations (especially in females)**: May include discomfort in the neck, jaw, shoulder, or upper abdomen, along with shortness of breath, pain in one or both arms, nausea or vomiting, sweating, fatigue, and heartburn.
234What is involved in the **Diagnosis of ACS**?
**Diagnosis of ACS**: Involves **clinical presentation**, **EKG findings**, and **cardiac biomarkers**.
235What do EKG findings show for **Ischemia**?
**Ischemia** may show **ST segment depression**.
236What do EKG findings show for **Infarction (STEMI)**?
**Infarction (STEMI)** is characterized by **ST elevation, T wave peaking, and the formation of Q waves**.
237What is the **Gold Standard** for diagnosing CAD?
**Gold Standard**: **Coronary angiogram ("cardiac cath")** to assess coronary artery patency.
238What are **Electrical Complications** of Acute MI?
**Electrical Complications**: Include **arrhythmias** (e.g., bradyarrhythmias, atrial and ventricular tachyarrhythmias) and **conduction abnormalities** (e.g., first, second, and third-degree heart block).
239What are **Mechanical Complications** of Acute MI?
**Mechanical Complications**: Involve right and left **ventricular failure**.
240What are **Structural Complications** of Acute MI?
**Structural Complications**: Infarction of myocardial regions can result in **free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, or acute mitral regurgitation** (due to papillary muscle rupture).
241What does the **P wave** represent on an EKG?
**P wave**: Represents **atrial depolarization**.
242What does the **PQ interval (PR interval)** represent on an EKG?
**PQ interval (PR interval)**: Represents **AV nodal delay**.
243What does the **QRS wave** represent on an EKG?
**QRS wave**: Represents **ventricular depolarization**.
244What does the **T wave** represent on an EKG?
**T wave**: Represents **ventricular repolarization**.
245What does **ST segment elevation** on an EKG suggest?
**ST segment elevation**: Highly suggestive of an **acute myocardial infarction**.
246What do **ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF** indicate?
**ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF**: Indicative of an **inferior wall myocardial infarction**, most likely due to **occlusion of the right coronary artery**.
247What is **Metabolism**?
**Metabolism** is the **sum of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell, a tissue or in the body.**
248What is the purpose of metabolism?
The purpose of the intermediary metabolism is to generate **energy from fuel molecules to feed all cells of the body.**
249How can energy (ATP) be generated and utilized?
**Energy (ATP) can be generated and utilized in two ways**: anaerobic (in the absence of oxygen and/or mitochondria) and aerobic (in the presence of oxygen and mitochondria).
250What energy generating pathways run in the mitochondria of cells?
The major energy-generating reactions in mitochondria: **Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH), Fatty acid beta-oxidation, Krebs cycle (TCA), Terminal oxidation (Electron transport and Oxidative phosphorylation)**.
251What is the difference between the mitochondrial outer and inner membranes?
Mitochondria have two membranes, a simple outer and a complex inner one. The **outer mitochondrial membrane (OMM)** is a simple membrane with a few enzymatic or transport functions and it is permeable to most biomolecules. The **inner mitochondrial membrane (IMM)** is heavily folded to supply a large surface area for the biochemical processes, is more complex with 80% protein content. It is semi-permeable and contains most of the electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation enzymes, various dehydrogenases and several transport systems.
252What coenzymes are required for PDH complex and are vitamin derivatives?
Coenzymes: (vitamins from food sources) **thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP, vitamin B1), lipoic acid (a vitamin), coenzyme A (vitamin B5), FAD (vitamin B2), NAD+ (vitamin B3)**.
253What is an important nutrition note for the PDH complex?
**Nutrition note - Eat your vitamins!**
254What are the fates of pyruvate under aerobic conditions?
Oxidatively decarboxylated to **acetyl-CoA under aerobic conditions (PDH)**. Carboxylated to **oxaloacetate for gluconeogenesis**.
255What are the fates of pyruvate under anaerobic conditions?
Reduced to **lactate, the end product of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions.**
256What is the location of the PDH complex?
**Location: mitochondrial matrix (the mitosol)**.
257What is the reaction catalyzed by the PDH complex?
Reaction: **irreversible** (large free energy change).
258What is **PDH deficiency** the most common cause of?
**PDH deficiency is the most common cause of congenital lactic acidosis.**
259What are the elevated serum levels in children with pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency?
Children diagnosed with pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency usually exhibit **elevated serum levels of lactate**, pyruvate, and alanine.
260What is the catabolic function of the tricarboxylic acid cycle?
The catabolic function of the tricarboxylic acid cycle is to **produce energy**.
261What is the anabolic function of the TCA cycle?
The anabolic function of the TCA cycle is to **supply starting material for different biosynthetic processes**, including gluconeogenesis, amino acid synthesis, fatty acid synthesis, etc.
262What are **anaplerotic reactions**?
**Anaplerotic reactions replenish intermediates of TCA**.
263What is the definition of **Terminal oxidation (2 parts)**?
**Terminal oxidation (2 parts)**: 1. Electron carriers transfer electrons and protons from **reduced coenzymes NADH and FADH2** (also called reduced cofactors) to **oxygen**. This is called **electron transport**. 2. This reducing power is then converted into **ATP energy by oxidative phosphorylation**.
264Where is the electron transport chain and the ATP synthetic system located?
**In the mitochondrial inner membrane.**
265What are the components of the electron transport chain?
**4 large multi-subunit enzyme complexes (Complex I - IV), Coenzyme Q, Cytochrome C**. The Complexes contain redox enzymes, coenzymes and metal ions – all participate in the redox reactions.
266What is an important nutrition note for the electron transport chain?
**Nutrition note: Eat your vitamins (NAD+, FAD, FMN) and minerals (iron and copper)!**
267How is ATP produced in oxidative phosphorylation?
**Protons are ejected from the mitochondrial matrix** (also known as the mitosol) into the intramembrane space at three points: at Complexes I, III, and IV. This creates an **electrochemical gradient (proton gradient)** that provides energy for ATP synthesis.
268What is the energy yield for NADH and FADH2 in terminal oxidation?
**NADH ~ 3ATPs**, **FADH2 ~ 2 ATPs**.
269What is **Myocardial infarction**?
**Myocardial infarction**: happens when the heart cannot get enough oxygen and nutrients through the blood flow, and this ischemia persists long enough to cause **severe damage (necrosis) to the heart muscle**.
270What are the characteristics of good diagnostic biomarkers?
**Tissue-specific**, **Time of appearance**, **Time of disappearance**, **Availability of reliable assays**.
271What are the characteristics of good biomarker assays?
**Widely available and inexpensive**, **Sensitive**, **Specific**, **High Positive Predictive Value (PPV)**, **Quantitative**, **Precise (reproducible)**, **Clearly distinguish between normal and pathologic levels of markers**.
272What are the important characteristics to remember for biomarker assays?
Please remember the assay’s **sensitivity, specificity, and high positive predictive value (PPV)**.
273What are **Isoforms of proteins**?
**Isoforms of proteins**: proteins that fulfill the same function, but differ slightly in amino acid composition, since they arise from different genetic loci.
274What are **Isoenzymes**?
**Isoenzymes**: enzymes that catalyze the same reaction, but differ slightly in amino acid composition, since they arise from different genetic loci.
275Describe the profile of **High-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI)** after an MI.
**High-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI)**: elevated **< 1 - 3 h**, peaks **12 - 24 h**, and returns to normal **varies - up to 14 days**.
276What is the newest FDA-approved biomarker assay for MI?
**High-sensitivity cardiac troponin I (hs-cTnI)** is the newest (2017) FDA-approved biomarker assay.
277Describe the profile of **Conventional (i.e., not “high-sensitivity”) cardiac troponin I (cTnI)** after an MI.
**Conventional (i.e., not “high-sensitivity”) cardiac troponin I (cTnI)**: elevated at **4 h**, peaks at **~24 h**, and returns to normal **7 - 10 days**.
278Describe the profile of **CK-MB** after an MI.
**CK-MB**: elevated **6 - 12 h**, peaks **16 - 24 h**, returns to normal **48 h**.
279What is **Plasmin**?
**Plasmin** is an enzyme in the blood that naturally dissolves clots.
280How does plasmin circulate?
**Plasmin circulates in blood as its inactive form (plasminogen).**
281What activates plasminogen?
**Plasmin is activated by tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA).**
282What is the structural basis of **cross-striations** in striated muscle?
**Cross-striations visible in light micrographs are evidence of organization of contractile proteins in sarcomeres.**
283What types of junctions are present in **intercalated discs**?
Cardiac muscle fibers are joined together end to end by **intercalated discs which contain the following types of junctions: fascia adherens, macula adherens (desmosomes), and gap junctions.**
284What is the function of **gap junctions** in cardiac muscle?
The **many gap junctions present in cardiac muscle tissue are responsible for the electrical coupling between adjacent cardiomyocytes so the heart muscle contracts as a unit.**
285What is the general relationship between **resting potential** and equilibrium potential of the most permeable ion?
The **resting potential will be closest to the equilibrium potential for the ion with the highest permeability.**
286What are the consequences of **hyperkalemia** on resting potential and Na+ channels?
With **hyperkalemia (high plasma potassium) EK, and therefore the resting potential, are less negative than normal. This causes Na+ channel inactivation gates to close. This raises the threshold potential in excitable cells and slows action potential propagation.**
287What is the state of **Na+ channel activation gate** at a typical muscle resting potential of -90 mV?
**Closed**.
288What is the state of **Na+ channel inactivation gate** at a typical muscle resting potential of -90 mV?
**Open**.
289What is the state of **K+ channel activation gate** at a typical muscle resting potential of -90 mV?
**Closed**.
290What is a likely mechanism of action of **local anesthetics**?
The idea of a local anesthetic is to raise the threshold potential. **Blockage of Na+ channels**, therefore, raises the threshold potential.
291What is a significant factor in the **slow conduction velocity of the AV node**?
**Phase 0 of the AV nodal action potential is carried by Ca2+ current, not Na+ current.**
292What is a factor that could be responsible for **rapid action potential propagation in Purkinje fibers**?
**Purkinje cells have a higher cell diameter than ventricular cells.**
293What channel is most responsible for the fact that the **resting potential of a cardiac cell is so negative (-90 mV)**?
**IK1, the inward rectifier K+ channel is able to conduct the most K+ at rest. This channel makes the membrane very permeant to K+ and, therefore, makes the resting potential close to EK (-95 mV).**
294What is the explanation for the **long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential**?
**The L-type Ca2+ channel and the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger (3 Na+ in for 1 Ca2+ out) both tend to depolarize the membrane. This opposes the delayed rectifier channels (mostly IKr and IKs in the ventricle) and makes the voltage “hang up”.**
295How does **β-adrenergic stimulation of the SA nodal cells** result in an increase in heart rate?
**Increased “funny” current, If.**
296What changes in which channel are likely to cause an increase in **action potential plateaus in ischemic ventricular myocytes**?
**Less inactivation of INa.**
297What is the formula for the **Nernst Equation**?
**Ex = (61mV / z) log ([X]e / [X]i)**.
298What is **electroneutrality**?
**Electroneutrality must be maintained on both sides of the membrane.**
299What are **Action Potentials (AP)**?
**Action potentials are all-or-none, non-decremental, unidirectional, and characterized by refractory periods.**
300What causes the **rising phase of the action potential** in nerve and skeletal muscle cells?
The **rapid opening (activation) of voltage-gated Na+ channels**.