AT 372 Exam 1

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1
What are inspections?
Visual examinations and manual checks used to determine the condition of an acft or a component
2
What is used as the backbone of a good maintenance program?
Inspections
3
Where can you find Annual/100 hour basic requirements?
Part 91
4
What is the point of a progressive inspection?
It's an inspection that allows the aircraft to be inspected in stages and minimizes downtime
(Due to the issue of how extensive and untimely annual inspections are)
5
What inspection must the owner/operator give a written request to the FAA Flight Standard District Office (FSDO)
Progressive inspection
6
What does the continuous inspection do differently than the progressive inspection?
They apply to large, or turbine-powered acft and are therefore more complicated.
7
What signs should you be looking for in regard to a lightening strike?
Signs of burning or erosion, or a line of burnt rivets leading to the static wicks
8
What is the first thing you should do when inspecting a bird strike?
You would clean off the surface and inspect to see if the skin was damaged in any way
9
What does the TCDS stand for and what does it contain?
Type Certificate Data Sheet
-contains a list of parameters to make sure every acft flies the same as every other on in its model series
10
What document lists the specifications, conditions, and limitations that the airworthiness requirements were met under for specific products such as engine make and model, fuel type, etc.?
TCDS
11
Service Bulletins are publications offered by the FAA to provide guidance and information in a designated subject area or to show a method acceptable to the admin for complying with a related regulation. (Trur/False)
FALSE, advisory circulars are
12
Compliance with AC's are____________. (mandatory/not mandatory)
Not mandatory
13
What publication governs acceptable methods, techniques and practices or aircraft inspections, repairs and alterations?
AC 43.13 1B and 2B
14
Why does AC 43.13 have 2 sections? (i.e. 1B and 2B)
the FAA combined the two most important advisory circulars into one book
15
What part of 14 CFR describes AD's?
part 39
16
What notifications do AD's advise owners/operators of?
requires them to fix an unsafe condition they found on the same type design of acft
17
Name the 2 categories of ADs
-Emergency= requires immediate compliance
-Less urgent= requires compliance within a time period
18
Who's responsible for the compliance of all AD's on an aircraft?
owner/operator
19
What system was developed to standardize the order of the material in maintenance mauals?
ATA 100 Codes
20
What type of system are ATA Codes Numbered in?
3 Number system
EX: 26-20-03
21
It is the responsibility of the owner/operator to keep which 3 records, until work is repeated, or after one year since the work was accomplished?
-Description of work performed
-date of completion
-name, signature, and cert. number
22
What 6 things must the owner/operator keep for however long they own the aircraft?
(1) Total time in service
(2) current status of life-limited parts
(3) time since last overhaul
(4) current inspection status
(5) current AD notes
(6) any FAA Form 337s completed (alterations)
23
When an aircraft is sold, the new owner is allowed to let the seller keep the actual reacords. (True/False)
True
24
When an aircraft is sold, and the seller keeps the records, it is still the seller's responsibility to have the records available if the FAA or NTSB request them. (True/False)
FALSE, it is the new owner's responsibility
25
Under part 65.73 what 2 ratings does the FAA recognize?
Airframe & Powerplant
26
What are the 4 eligibility requirements to have your A&P?
-you must be 18 years old
-you must be able to read, write, speak, and understand English
-you must pass all required test within 24 months of applying
-you must possess and demonstrate appropriate knowledge and skill for the certificate rating sought
27
What is one way you can bypass the A&P eligibility requirement of being able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language?
If you don't meet the requirement, and you work outside the U.S. you can get the cert but it will ONLY be valid outside of the U.S.
28
After a student meets the requirements in section 65.77, they must pass the writtens with a min score of___.
70%
29
What are the 3 written tests for the A&P and how many questions do they have?
-General = 60 questions
-Airframe = 100 questions
-Powerplant = 100 Questions
If you are found cheating you are not eligible for the certificate for _______ days.
A) 30 days
B) 90 days
C) 1 year
30
D) 2 years
C) 1 year
31
Give me the 2 options you have after failing one of the tests.
-Wait 30 days to retake
-seed additional instruction on what you failed and provided a signed document from a certified technician providing the instruction that states you are ready to take the test again
32
After you pass your A&P you have a temporary certificate so you can immediately begin working. (True/False)
TRUE
33
How long does a temporary A&P certificate last, and why do you have that timeframe?
120 Days, so that the FAA can review your application and issue you a hard copy certificate
34
Who is liable to hold a certificate an applicant is applying for or revoke any existing certificates if the applicant is found to be a security threat?
TSA (transportation security administration)
35
name 4 privileges and limitations that a certified mechanic can do.
-CAN perform/supervise maintenance for what they are rated for
-CANNOT perform major repairs or alterations on props and flight instruments
-CANNOT supervise maintenance for what they are rated for without prior experience working on it
-CANNOT work on what they are rated for without the ability to understand the instruction within the manuals applicable to system
36
What offense would allow you to be denied an application for a certificate or rating for 1 year after conviction?
-anyone convicted of violating federal or state statutes relating to drug offenses
37
What are 5 drug tests that employers are allowed to use?
(1) pre-employment
(2) periodic
(3) random
(4) post-accident
(5) resting based on reasonable cause
38
How long must you hold your A&P cert, and be active, in order to apply for an FAA Form 8610-1 (IA).
hold for 3 years and be active for 2
39
What must you also have in order to get Inspection authorization?
-a fixed base of operation that can be contacted
- available equipment, facilities and applicable inspection data
40
What percentge must you pass the IA test and what happens if you fail?
70%, and you cant retake test until after 90 days
41
Your IA certificate expires on October 1st of each odd numbered year and is only effective when the technician holds an effective mechnaic certificate. (True/False)
FALSE, they expire on MARCH 31st of each odd numbered year
42
what will make an IA no longer effective?
-the technician surrendered it or its revoked
-technician no longer has fixed base of operation
-technician no longer has required facilities, equipment, or inspection data
43
2 Types of air pressure are __________ and _________.
Dynamic/Ram and Ambient/Static
44
In what way is the pitot tube facing when mounted on the aircraft?
into the airstream to receive the full force of the impact air pressure
45
Describe the process of the air through a pitot tube
-air goes through baffle plate
-ram air is directed aft to a chamber in the shark fin
-shark fin pushes air to upright tube
-tube sends pressure out of assy. to the airspeed indicator
46
What does the baffle plate do in a pitot tube assy.?
protects the system from moisture and dirt from entering the tube
(drain hole at the bottom allows moisture to escape)
47
Where are pitot tubes mounted?
on the outside of the acft at a point where the air is LEAST turbulent
48
Where are pitot tubes typically located?
nose of fuselage, wings, and empennage
49
What instrument uses a differential pressure gauge and measures the diffeene between ram and ambient air pressure?
airspeed indicator
50
The pitot tube's role in an airspeed indicator is to input air directly into the diaphragm which causes it to expand. (True/False)
TRUE
51
what input does the altimeter use?
Only static
52
describe the kollsman window in an altimeter.
it adjusts for current atmospheric pressure
53
Which indicator indicates a rate of climb, and serves as a backup system for the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and pitch indicating?
Vertical airspeed indicator
54
Which 14 CFR part provides the time interval for performing inspections, and the people allowed to perform those?
part 91.411
55
Which part of part 43 provides the specifications for the tests on instruments?
PArt 43 Appendix E
56
What 3 things must be done when a new instrument is installed?
-instrument markings are placed on the face card of the instrument
-new marks must be placed on instrument glass to indicate operating limits for acft
-white index mark is put on glass face that extends to instrument case to make sure glass doesnt slip
57
what are 7 common problems of pitot static systems?
(1) blockages of the pitot static system
(2) pitot not activated
(3) pitot failed
(4) ice formed on intake
(5) bugs clogging pitot tube
(6) ice over sttic vents
(7) FOD/debris in system
58
Rigidity in space is the ability for the gyro to be in a fixed spot and resist external forces of the plane being applied to it. (True/False)
TRUE
59
What is precession and where is it felt if the gyro is acted up on on one spot?
-the tilting of a gyro in response to pressure
-the gyro responds 90 degrees ahead of the point in the direction of rotation
60
determine the 2 sources of power of gyros.
-electrical
-air(vacuum)
61
The attitude and heading indicators use electrical power. (True/False)
FALSE, they use air(vacuum) pressure
62
The turn coordinator and turn-and-slip use electrical power. (True/False)
TRUE
63
The vacuum system sucls the air around it using a ______________ or _________________.
-engine driven vacuum pump
-venturi
64
What type of air does the vacuum pump use and from where?
filtered air from the cabin, and dumps it into engine compartment
65
how does the vacuum sys get the gyro to work?
sucks filtered air from the cabin through the instrument, spins the gyro, and dumps it into the engine compartment
66
Attitude indicator is an instrument that gives the pilot an indication of hte attitude of the aircraft realtive to its ______________ and ____________ axes.
pitch and roll
67
The altitude indicator is also known as an artificial horizon. (True/False)
FALSE, attitude indicator
68
What is on the attitude indicator gauge and how is it useful?
it has the sky, the earth and a little airplane and is useful when:
-natural horizon blocked by clouds
-visibility is poor
-flying at night
69
The heading indicator is NOT a direction seeking instrument and must be set to agree with the compass. (True/False)
TRUE
70
The ________________ measures rotation only about the Vertical axis of the aircraft. Unlike the ____________________, which indicates both roll and yaw.
Turn coordinator, turn and slip indicator
71
The turn coordinaator's gimbal axis is tilted upward about 30 degrees, why?
so the instrument can sense both roll and yaw
72
The turn coordinator indicates both roll and yaw. (True/False)
TRUE
73
What is required by the FAA regulation 91.205 to be installed and operational on an aircraft for it to be considered airworthy?
Magnetic direction indicators (compasses)
74
What is the oldest instrument in the field of transportation?
Floating magnet-type magnetic compass
75
What fluids are used inside the housing of the magnetic compass?
Purified kerosene or Isopar
76
What is the purpose of the fluid inside the magnetic compass?
It is used to dampen the oscillations of the float
77
This compass error is caused by the difference in the physical location of the magnetic North Pole and the geographic North Pole.
A) Deviation
B) Variation
C) Magnetic Dip
D) Turning
E) Acceleration and Deceleration
F) Oscillation
Variation
78
This compass error is caused by local magnetic fields within the aircraft.
A) Deviation
B) Variation
C) Magnetic Dip
D) Turning Error
E) Acceleration and Deceleration
F) Oscillation
Deviation
79
Deviation is the same with each heading. (True/False)
FALSE, deviation error is different on each heading
80
Which error requires a technician to swing the compass and fill out a compass correction card?
A) Deviation
B) Variation
C) Magnetic Dip
D) Turning
E) Acceleration and Deceleration
F) Oscillation
Deviation
81
Where should the compass card be mounted?
In plain sight near the compass
82
Which FAR describes the max edition permitted in a compensated compass level flight?
FAR 23.1327
83
How much deviation can the compass have on any heading?
10 degrees
84
Which error is the tendency of the compass needles to point down, and to the magnetic pole?
A) Deviation
B) Variation
C) Magnetic Dip
D) Turning
E) Acceleration and Deceleration
F) Oscillation
Magnetic dip
85
Where is the magnetic dip greatest?
Her the poles and least near the magnetic equator
86
The compass card is designated to operate in the ______________, therefore, any movement from the _______________ plane introduces a dip error.
Horizontal, horizontal
87
Which compass error causes the compass to lead in a turn from the south and a compass lags in a turn from the north?
A) Deviation
B) Variation
C) Magnetic Dip
D) Turning Error
E) Acceleration and Deceleration
F) Oscillation
Turning Error
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