372 final review

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1
What are inspections?
Visual examinations and manual checks to determine the condition of an aircraft or component
2
What can an inspection range from?
a casual walkaround to a detailed inspection (complete disassembly and the use of complex inspection aids)
3
what are inspections considered to be?
the backbone of a good maintenance program
4
Where can you find the basic requirements for annual and 100 hr inspections?
Part 91
5
What were progressive inspections designed for?
to minimize downtime since annual inspections are extensive and keep an aircraft out of service for a considerable amount of time
6
What must an owner/operator do if they want to perform a progressive inspection?
give a written request to the FAA flight standard district office
7
How do continuous inspections differ from progressive inspections?
they apply to large or turbine powered aircraft and are therefore more complicated
8
What should you look for if a lightning strike hits an aircraft?
signs of burning or erosion
9
what happens if lightning hits a plane?
you will find a line of burnt rivets leading to the static wicks
10
What should you do after a bird strike?
clean off the surface and inspect to see if the skin was damaged in anyway
11
What is a TCDS?
it is a list of key parameters to make sure every aircraft flies identical to every model in its series
12
what does a TCDS list
specifications, conditions, and limitations for airworthiness requirements (for specific products such as engine make, model , and fuel type)
13
What are advisory circulars?
An FAA publication used to provide guidance and information in a designated subject area or to show an acceptable method of compliance
14
T/F: Compliance with advisory circulars is mandatory
False (Compliance with these publications are not mandatory)
15
What are AC 43.13-1B and 2B?
a book created by the FAA that combine the two most important ACs
16
What is an airworthiness directive?
a notification to the owner/operator from the FAA to require them to fix an unsafe condition they found on an aircraft of the same type design
17
what are the two categories of ADs?
Emergency and less urgent notices
18
What is the difference between emergency ADs and less urgent notices?
Emergency require immediate compliance and less urgent still requires you to comply but you are given a time frame
19
whose responsibility is it do comply with ADs?
the owner/operator
20
What are ATA 100 codes?
a system developed to standardize the order of material in maintenance manuals
21
What number system do ATA codes have?
a three number system
22
Whose responsibility is it to retain maintenance records?
"its the owner/operator's responsibility to keep records until work is repeated or after one year since the work has been performed"
23
what must maintenance records include (for one year)?
a description of the work performed, date of completion, name, signature, and certificate number of the person doing the RTS
24
How long must maintenance records be retained?
however long the aircraft owner/operator owns the aircraft
25
What must maintenance records contain if they are to be kept forever?
TT in service, status of life limited parts, time since last overhaul, inspection status, AD notes, and major alterations (form 337)
26
If an aircraft is sold what typically happens to the records?
they are transferred with it
27
Can the new owner of the aircraft decide to allow the seller to keep the actual records?
yes
28
if the old owner retains the records whose job is it to have them available if the FAA or NTSB request it?
The new owner
29
What ratings does the FAA recognize?
Airframe and Powerplant
30
What are the eligibility requirements for an A&P?
18 years old, read, write, speak, and understand the english language, pass the required tests within 24 months of applying and demonstrate proper knowledge
31
What can you do if you do not meet the english language requirement?
you can work outside the US and still get a certificate but it will no be valid inside of the US
32
What is the minimum score needed to pass written exams?
70%
33
What are the three written tests you must complete and how many questions in each?
General: 60 Airframe: 100 powerplant: 100
34
If you are found cheating or any other unauthorized conduct how long are you ineligible?
1 year
35
How long do you wait after failure?
30 days
36
what can you do if you do not want to wait the 30 days after you fail?
seek additional instruction in the subject matter areas you failed and provide a signed document from the certificated technician
37
How long is a temporary certificate valid for?
no more than 120 days during which the FAA will review your application
38
who can revoke or hold a certificate an applicant is applying for if they are found to be a security threat?
TSA
39
Who can perform or supervise the maintenance, preventative maintenance, or alteration of an aircraft or appliance which they are rated for?
a certificated mechanic
40
can a mechanic perform major repairs or alterations on propellers and flight instruments?
no
41
can a certificated mechanic supervise the maintenance, preventative, or alteration in which they are rated for without previously performing the work?
no
42
can a certified mechanic perform the privileges in which they are rated for with the ability to understand the instruction of the manufacturer and maintenance manuals
no
43
If you are convicted for violating federal or state statues relating to drug offenses how long can you be denied for?
1 year after conviction
44
what are the different types of drug tests?
Pre-employment, Periodic, Random, Post-accident, Testing based on reasonable cause
45
How long must an A&P mechanic hold a certificate to apply for an IA?
3 years and be active for the last 2
46
what must you have to be an IA?
fixed base of operation, available equipment, inspection data necessary to properly inspect parts and appliances that are being RTS
47
what are the testing requirements to become an IA?
Pass with a minimum of 70 and if you fail you must wait 90 days
48
When does an IA certificate expire?
March 31st of each odd number year
49
when is an IA certificate no longer effective?
the technician surrenders it, suspended or revoked, no longer has a fixed base of operations, no longer has the required facilities, equipment or inspection data available
50
what are the types of pressure?
Dynamic (Ram) and Ambient (Static)
51
what is dynamic pressure caused by?
the aircraft moving through the air
52
what is ambient pressure?
the non-moving air just outside the aircraft
53
What is a baffle plate designed to do?
Protect the system form moisture and dirt from entering the tube
54
What way is the pitot tube facing?
into the airstream so it receives the full force of the impact air
55
what is the process of the pitot static system?
air passes through the baffle then ram air is directed into a chamber in the shark fin which takes it upright and send the pressure to the airspeed indicator
56
what does the drain hole below the baffle do?
allows moisture to escape
57
where are pitot tubes mounted?
on the outside of the aircraft at a point where the air is least likely to be turbulent
58
where are pitot tubes typically located?
nose of the fuselage, wing, empennage (tail section)
59
What is an airspeed indicator?
an instrument that uses differential pressure
60
what does an airspeed indicator measure?
the difference between dynamic and static air pressure
61
what inputs does an airspeed indicator use?
pitot and static
62
what is a pitot tubes role in an airspeed indicator?
input air directly into the diaphragm which causes it to expand
63
What input does an altimeter use?
only static
64
what is the kollsman window?
adjusts for current atmospheric pressure
65
what does a vertical airspeed indicator do?
indicates rate of climb
66
what does the vertical airspeed indicator serve as a back up system for?
altimeter, airspeed , pitch
67
what CFR provides the time interval and provides the person(s) allowed to perform inspections?
Part 91.411
68
what CFR provides the specifications for the tests?
Part 43 appendix E
69
if a new instrument is installed where are the markings placed?
on the glass or face card of the instrument to indicate specific operating limits
70
what color is the marking placed on the glass?
white
71
what is the marking there for?
to make sure the glass does not slip or rotate
72
what are some of the common problems with pitot static systems?
Blockages, not activated, failure, ice formation in the intake or over vents, bugs, and fod
73
what is rigidity is space?
the ability for a gyro to remain in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning and resist external forces applied to it
74
what is precession?
the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to pressure
75
Where does the gyro respond to the force of rotation?
approximately 90 degrees ahead of the point where you apply the force
76
what are the two sources of power?
electrical and air (vacuum)
77
what are the attitude and heading indicators run by?
Vacuum or Pressure
78
what are the turn coordinator and turn and slip indicators run by?
electrical power
79
how does the vacuum system work?
it sucks the air around it with a vacuum pump or a venturi
80
how is the vacuum pump driven?
by the engine
81
where does a vacuum pump pull air from and how does it operate?
it sucks the filtered air from the cabin and through the instrument causing it to spin the gyro afterward the air is dumped out the engine compartment
82
what is an attitude indicator?
it is an instrument that gives the pilot an indication of the attitude of the aircraft relative to its pitch and roll axes
83
what is an attitude indicator also known as?
an artificial horizon
84
when is an attitude indicator useful?
the natural horizon is blocked by clouds, visibility is poor, and flying at night
85
how must a heading indicator be set?
to agree with the magnetic compass
86
how does the turn coordinator measure rotation?
about the vertical axis of the aircraft
87
what does the turn and coordinator indicate differently than the turn and slip?
both roll and yaw
88
"how is the turn coordinator's axis tilted?"
upward about 30 degrees (allowing it to sense both roll and yaw)
89
What instrument is required by FAA regulation 91.205 in order for an aircraft to be considered airworthy?
Magnetic direction indicators
90
what is the oldest instrument in the field of transportation?
float magnetic compass
91
what fluids are used in a float compass?
purified kerosene or isopar
92
what are the fluids used to do in a float compass?
dampen the oscillations of the float
93
what is variation?
the error caused by the difference in the physical location of the magnetic north pole the the geographic north pole
94
what is deviation caused by?
the local magnetic fields within the aircraft
95
T/F: Deviation error is different on each heading
True
96
What compass error requires a technician to swing the compass and fill out a compass correction card?
Deviation
97
Where must a compass correction card be mounted?
in plain sight near the compass
98
what does FAR 23.1327 state?
that the maximum deviation permitted must not be more than 10 degrees on any heading
99
what is magnetic dip?
the tendency of the compass needles to point down as well as to the magnetic pole
100
where is magnetic dip the greatest and least?
greatest near the poles and least near the magnetic equator
101
where is a compass card designed to operate?
in the horizontal
102
what introduces a dip error?
movement from the horizontal plane
103
Which compass error causes the compass to lead in a turn from the south and a compass lags in a turn from the north?
Turning error
104
what is acceleration error?
a increase in airspeed on an east or west heading causing a false turn north
105
what is a deceleration error?
a decrease in airspeed on a east or west heading causing it to false turn south
106
what is an oscillation error caused by and what does it result in?
turbulence or rough control movements and results in erratic movement of the compass card
107
what compensating mechanisms are built into the lower bowl of the compass?
east/west compensation, north/south compensation
108
when and why are compensation mechanisms used?
when swinging the compass to correct for deviation
109
What are gravity feed systems?
a system that has the fuel tanks located above the engine and lets gravity deliver the fuel
110
How do gravity feed systems work?
The space above the liquid fuel is vented to maintain atmospheric pressure on the fuel as the tank empties
111
Why are the tanks vented to each other?
to ensure equal pressure when both tanks feed the engine
112
What are pump feed systems used on?
"They are used on low and mid-wind aircraft that can't send fuel to the engines via gravity"
113
What are the two pump systems?
Engine driven and electrical
114
Why are two pumps used?
Redundancy, the engine pump is the primary and the electrical pump is secondary incase of failure
115
What are the two types of fuel lines?
flexible or rigid
116
Where are stainless steel rigid fuel lines used?
in the engine compartment, wheel wells, and other areas subject to damage from debris
117
T/F: Rigid fuel lines are often made of aluminum alloy
True
118
What are flexible lines made of?
A synthetic rubber interior with a reinforcing fiber braid wrap covered by a synthetic exterior
119
Where are gascolators located?
at the lowest point and near the engine
120
what are gascolators used as?
a final filter for the engine
121
what do gascolators consist of?
drains, screens, gaskets and sediment bowls
122
where are gascolators mounted?
to the engine side of the firewall
123
What are the basic types of aircraft fuel tanks?
Rigid removable, bladder, integral
124
how are fuel tanks typically vented?
a vent cap or a vent line
125
what is the low area in all fuel tanks called?
a sump
126
what is a sump used for?
it is a place for contaminants and water to settle
127
what is a sump equipped with?
a drain valve
128
what is a drain valve used for?
to remove impurities during a preflight walk around
129
why do most fuel tanks contain some baffling?
to subdue the fuel from shifting during flight
130
What are rigid removable tanks made from?
Various materials like 3003 or 5052 aluminum alloys or stainless steel
131
T/F: Rigid removable tanks are riveted and seam welded to prevent leaks
True
132
how are rigid removable tanks attached?
they are strapped into the airframe structure
133
what are the requirements when dealing with a rigid removable tank?
they must be supported by the airframe and held in place with some sort of padded strap arrangement to resist shifting in flight
134
whats the difference between a bladder tank and a rigid removable tank?
a bladder fuel tank does not require as large of an opening in the aircraft skin to install
135
How are bladder tanks inserted?
rolled up and put into a specifically prepared structural bay through a small opening like an inspection opening or panel
136
how must bladder fuel tanks be installed?
smooth and unwrinkled on the bottom so the fuel contaminants are not blocked from settling into the tank sump
137
what should one do in the event of a bladder fuel tank leak?
have a technician patch it up or send it to a fuel tank repair station that can perform the repair
138
where are integral fuel tanks found?
on transport or high performance aircraft
139
where is an integral fuel tank located?
it is part of the structure of the wings or fuselage
140
what do integral fuel tanks require?
baffles to prevent fuel from sloshing around
141
"T/F: In an integral fuel tank the wing's ribs and box beam structural members serve as the baffles"
true
142
What must you do prior to performing maintenance on an integral fuel tank?
all fuel must be removed and all vapors must be purged
143
how long does it take to purge fuel vapors?
possibly a couple days
144
what must you wear when entering a fuel tank?
A respirator and gloves
145
what are the four types of fuel quantity indicators?
Sight glass, Mechanical, Electrical, Electronic
146
What is a float type (mechanical) indictor?
it is a float that sits in the tank and as the fuel is used the float moves with it
147
what does it mean when a float gauge reads zero?
it means there is no more usable fuel not that it is empty
148
T/F: An electrical indicator has a moveable float
False it has no moveable float
149
What is an electric condenser used for?
to measure capacitance of fuel and air in the tank then it compares that to a reference capacitor
150
what is the purpose of a fuel vent system?
to equalize the fuel tank air pressure during flight and fueling/defueling
151
what do fuel vents help do?
prevent fuel evaporation and allow positive pressure on top of the fuel
152
what is the goal of a fuel jettison system?
to reduce weight in case of emergencies or if the max take off weight is greater than 105% of the certified landing weight
153
where are jettison ports located?
on wing tips or trailing edges
154
where must refueling/defueling be done?
outside the hanger because the fuel vapors may accumulate and increase risk of accident
155
what are the two types of fueling processes?
over the wing and pressure system
156
what is over the wing fueling similar to?
filling a car
157
how is pressure fueling done?
under the wing, a fuel nozzle is locked into the fuel port, and fuel is pumped through this secured and sealed connection
158
What can happen with fuel static charge?
if the charges are not dissipated constantly they can eventually arc somewhere in the line
159
how can you prevent arcing?
grounding all equipment
160
what are the advantages of using cables?
high mechanical efficiency, no backlash, provides precise control
161
what are the disadvantages of using cables?
tension must be adjusted frequently due to stretching and temperature changes
162
what are aircraft control cables made from?
carbon steel or stainless steel
163
what are the four places where you can find rigging specifications?
"TCDS, Maintenance manual, structural repair manual, manufacturer's service information"
164
what are the two types of cables?
7x19 and 7x7
165
where is a 7x19 cable used?
it is a very flexible and used in primary control systems and other locations where operation over pulleys is used frequently
166
where is a 7x7 cable used
it is a medium flexible cable which is used for trim tab control, engine controls, and indicator controls
167
What are the types of cable terminations?
Woven splice, nicopress, swage-type
168
what does a woven splice consist of?
5 tuck splices
169
when are woven splices used?
on some antique aircraft where the effort is made to keep all parts in their original configuration
170
what is a nicopress?
it is a patented process using copper sleeves and may be used up to the full rated strength of the cable when the cable is looped around a thimble
171
what do you need to do when using swage-type terminals?
"you need to use the correct tools and follow the instructions word for word so you don't mess up and have to replace the whole cable"
172
what are aircraft cables subject to?
environmental conditions and deterioration
173
what are the types of wire deteriorations?
wire or strand breaks, wear, corrosion, distortion
174
when must cable inspections be inspected?
every 100 hours and annually at a minimum
175
where must you look when inspecting cables?
anywhere cables pass through battery compartments, lavatories, and wheel wells
176
what are the prime areas for corrosion?
areas where cables pass through, battery compartments, lavatories, and wheel wells
177
what are the critical fatigue areas?
anywhere a cable runs over, under, or around a pulley, sleeve, or through a fairlead
178
what are the two ways to check a cable with two people?
one person moves the control surfaces through its travel the other holds a cloth on the cable and sees if a strand catches on it
179
what is a way to check a cable that you cant see defects from the outside?
loosen or remove a cable and bend it this reveals internal strands that are broken
180
how accurate is a tensiometer if an aircraft is properly maintained?
98%
181
when are pulleys needed?
when cables need to change direction
182
when are pulleys required?
When turning more than 3 degrees
183
what are fairleads used for?
to help guide cables
184
what do fairleads allow cables to do?
bends in cables when a turn is less than 3 degrees
185
what are turnbuckles?
it is a mechanical screw device consisting of two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel
186
what is the purpose of a turnbuckle?
making minor adjustments in the cable length and for adjusting the cable
187
how can you tell which end is left hand threaded?
the groove around the end of the barrel
188
what is important when installing turnbuckles?
that all turnbuckle terminals are screwed into the barrel until no more than 3 threads are exposed on either side of the turnbuckle barrel
189
What is the preferred method of safety wiring a turnbuckle?
double wrap method
190
how many threads can be exposed?
3
191
what is the minimum number of wraps on the ends?
4
192
T/F: You can unwrap and re-wrap safety wire
False
193
does appearance count when safety wiring?
yes
194
what do push rods eliminate?
the problem of varying tension
195
what do push rods permit?
the transfer of either compression or tension stress through a single tube
196
What do landing gear do?
support the entire weight of an aircraft during landing and ground operations
197
what are the different variations of landing gear?
Wheels, skids, skis, pontoons
198
what are the basic arrangements of landing gear used?
Tail wheel (conventional), tandem, tricycle
199
why are tailwheel landing gear known as conventional?
because many early aircraft used this type of landing gear
200
how are tailwheel landing gear arranged?
the main landing gear are located forward of the center of gravity (causes the tail to require support from a third wheel assembly)
201
T/F: There are many aircraft designed with tandem landing gear
False
202
how are tandem landing gear arranged?
main and tail gear aligned on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
203
what is the most common type of landing gear?
tricycle type
204
what are tricycle type landing gear comprised of?
main gear and a nose gear
205
what is the benefit of tricycle landing gear when it comes to landing speeds?
it allows for a more forceful application of the breaks without nosing over when breaking thus enabling higher landing speeds
206
How do tricycle landing gear affect visibility?
it provides better visibility from the flight deck especially during landing and ground maneuvers
207
what does tricycle landing gear prevent?
ground looping of the aircraft
208
how is fixed landing gear attached?
to the airframe
209
Does fixed landing gear retract?
no and it causes a lot of induced drag
210
Where is the retraction type landing gear stowed?
in the fuselage or wing compartments while in flight (decreasing drag)
211
what are the structural components of landing gear?
Shock absorber, axle, torque links, side braces, retraction actuators, wheels and tires
212
what are the landing gear systems?
brake, anti skid, retraction and steering
213
what are the types of landing gear alignments?
Parallel (aligned), converge (tow-in), veer away (tow-out)
214
what is a trunnion?
Fixed structural extension of the upper strut cylinder with bearing surfaces that allow the entire gear assembly to move
215
what is the simplest retraction systems?
lever in the flight deck mechanically linked to the gear using roller chains, sprockets, and a hand crank
216
how are most retraction systems operated?
hydraulically, though some are electrically operated or manually operated
217
what is the emergency retraction system used for?
if the main power failed
218
what happens when the handle is released when the emergency retraction system is used?
it releases the up locks to allow the gear to free fall to the extended position
219
where is the nose wheel steerable from?
the flight deck
220
what is the steering system like on small aircraft?
a simple system of mechanical linkages connected to the rudder pedals
221
what do large aircraft need due to their size?
a power source
222
what do most aircraft use to operate steering?
hydraulic power
223
how is control of the steering from the flight deck accomplished?
through the use of a small wheel, tiller, or joystick that directs hydraulic fluid under pressure to one or more actuators to rotate the lower strut
224
What is the function of the brakes besides the obvious?
holding an aircraft stationary during engine run ups and also to help steer if the steering system fails
225
what are some types of brakes that are used in the industry?
single, floating, dual, power, expander tube, carbon
226
what types of tires are there?
tubeless or tube
227
what do tires support?
the weight of the aircraft and provide the necessary traction for braking and stopping
228
what are the various parts of aircraft tires?
tread, cord body, beads, sidewall
229
what are the functions of that the skid control system performs?
normal skid control, locked wheel skid control, touchdown protection
230
In an antiskid system what happens if a wheel goes into a skid?
its braking value is greatly reduced
231
what happens if a wheel rotation slows down but has not come to a stop
it signifies sliding has begun and not reached a full scale slide
232
what does the skid control valve remove?
some of the hydraulic pressure to the wheel which permits the wheel to rotate a little faster and stops it from sliding
233
T/F: In an antiskid system each of the wheels are independent from the others
True
234
what happens with locked wheel skid control?
the brakes are fully released when its wheel locks
235
when does locked wheel skid control occur?
if the normal skid control does not prevent the wheel from reaching a full skid
236
Which Skid Control system, if it senses a skid, will release hydraulic pressure over a longer period of time?
Locked Wheel Skid Control
237
To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed?
In a level flight attitude
238
The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between?
The maximum takeoff weight and basic empty weight
239
The Useful load of an aircraft consists of the?
Crew, Usable fuel, passengers, and cargo
240
If it is necessary to weigh an aircraft with full fuel tanks, all fuel weight must be subtracted from the scale readings?
Except unusable fuel
241
what does touchdown protection prevent?
the brakes from being applied during the landing approach even if the brakes are depressed
242
T/F: Touchdown protection prevents the wheels from being locked up when they come in contact with the runway
true
243
what are the conditions that must exist to allow for braking?
the squat switch must signal wow and the wheel generator sense wheel speed is over 15-20 mph
244
what is the primary purpose of weight and balance control?
provide a safe and efficient aircraft in flight
245
what are the reasons for re-weighing an aircraft?
addition of new equipment, new paint job, loss of og weight and balance records, air carrier operators must periodically re-weigh per the operations manual
246
what is a datum?
an imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal measurements are taken for balancing purposes, with the aircraft in level flight
247
where is the location of the datum identified?
in the TCDS
248
what is an arm?
the horizontal distance that a part of the aircraft or a piece of equipment is located from datum
249
"what is the arm's distance given in?"
inches
250
where are arms located?
either ahead of or behind the specific datum
251
what is a moment?
the product of the weight of an item times its distance from datum
252
what is center of gravity?
it is the point at which all of the aircraft weight can be considered to be concentrated
253
what would happen if the aircraft was suspended from its center of gravity?
it would have no tendency to rotate in either the nose up or nose down attitude
254
what is center of lift?
the point at which all of the lift is concentrated
255
where is the center of lift located?
about 1/3 of the way back from the leading edge of the wing
256
what is empty weight?
It is the weight of an aircraft and engine, with all the items of operating equipment which have a fixed location installed
257
what is maximum weight?
it is the maximum authorized weight of the aircraft and its content
258
what does a useful load consist of?
Weight of the pilot, copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel, drainable oil
259
where is the information found about scales?
in the TCDS which are often on landing gear or jacking points
260
What are the conditions for weighing an aircraft that must be observed to make the aircraft balance come out right?
weighed indoors, flaps up, doors closed, level, seats in center of front to back, controls neutral, fixed equipment on board, unusable fuel on board
261
"if an aircraft is certified under CAR's before 1957 what oil should be on board?"
only un-drainable
262
For aircraft certified after 1957 what oil should be on board?
full oil onboard
263
what operating fluids should be on board?
full anti-ice, hydraulic fluid, etc
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