exam 3

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1
which is NOT a characteristic of non-fermenting bacilli
  • sweet, fruity odor
  • not typically found in healthy human flora
  • can be acquired in the environment or hospital settings
  • prefer dry environments
2
what is the clinical significance of Haemophilus ducreyi?
  • associated with subacute endocarditis
  • infections in CF patients can be life threatening
  • acquired when swimming in warm water, may infect open wounds
  • STI causing painful chancres
3
which media allows for the enhancement of the pigment pyocyanin
  • cetrimide (Pseudocel)
  • BSCA
  • none of the above
  • MAC
4
which organism fits the following:
- produces alginate slime
- beta hemolytic
- none lactose fermenting
- oxidase positive
- grape-like odor
  • Helicobacter pylori
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Escherichia coli
5
why is pyocyanin significant
  • masks P. aeruginosa from the immune system
  • prevents upper respiratory cilia from removing B. cepacia
  • prevents upper respiratory cilia from removing P. aeruginosa
  • creates a distinctive color for identifying B. cepacia
6
which organism is associated with colonization in CF patients, chronic osteomyelitis, swimmer's ear, bacterial keratitis, and a wide range of other infectious diseases?
  • P. aeruginosa
  • B. quintana
  • F. tularensis
  • B. cepacia
7
T/F - P. aeruginosa is now showing intrinsic resistance to many antibiotics
  • true
  • false
8
which is NOT a key difference between P. aeruginosa and P. fluorescens/P. putida?
  • P. fluorescens is oxidase positive, P. aeruginosa is oxidase negative
  • P. aeruginosa grows at 42C, P. fluorescens/putida do not
  • P. aeruginosa can reduce nitrate, P. fluorescens/putida do not
  • P. fluorescens/putida produces pyoverdin and fluorescein and not pyocyanin, while P. aeruginosa produces all three
9
which Pseudomonas species is known for being nonfluorescent and having a wrinkly, brown appearance on SBA?
  • P. fluorescens
  • P. putida
  • P. aeruginosa
  • P. stutzeri
10
which organism fits the following?
- motile GNR
- associated with CF patients
- not part of normal flora
- dirt-like odor
  • P. aeruginosa
  • B. cepacia complex
  • Acinetobacter spp.
  • Nocardia spp.
11
describe the appearance of B. cepacia complex on BCSA
  • changes surrounding media from red to yellow
  • changes surrounding media from yellow to clear
  • yields wide feathery colonies
  • yields small, pinpoint colonies
12
why is B. cepacia complex so dangerous for CF patients?
  • its ability to adhere to mucin, which is overproduced by CF patients
  • it grows at the base of lower respiratory milia, making it hard to remove
  • it encourages mucin production when infecting a CF patient
  • it possesses many virulence factors that the body can't defend against
13
which organism fits the following description:
- aerobic GNR
- oxidase positive
- musty/earthy odor
- arginine positive
- caustive agent of meliodosis
  • Pseudomonas stutzeri
  • Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
  • Burkholderia pseudomallei
  • Burkholderia cepacia
14
where is Elizabethkingia meningoseptica found/acquired?
  • environmental/hospital sources
  • normal human flora
  • environmental sources only
  • animal reservoirs (arthropods, rodents)
15
which organism fits the following:
- positive indole with erlich's reagent
- produces beta lactamases
- oxidase positive
- non motile
  • Escherichia coli
  • Alcaligenes faecalis
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
16
which organism fits the following
- green apple odor
- green discoloration
- motile GNR
- assachrolytic
- not part of the human flora, but may colonize CF patients
  • Alcaligenes faecalis
  • Aeromonas spp.
  • Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
  • Achromobacter xylosoxidans
17
which two sugars can be oxidzed by Achromobacter xylosoxidans?
  • glucose, sucrose
  • sorbitol, innositol
  • glucose, xylose
  • lactose, xylose
18
T/F - Vibrio spp. are not part of human flora and should be considered pathogenic when found
true
19
which organism fits the following:
- found in salt/freshwater
- associated with undercooked seafood and poor sanitation
- comma shaped GNR
- shooting star motility in fresh stool
  • Vibrio vulnificus
  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Eswardsiella tardia
20
which is a defining characteristic of Vibrio cholerae
  • will grow in 6% salt
  • blood group O individuals are more susceptible
  • all of the above
  • yields a 7mm or taller height during string test
21
which of the following is correct
  • V. cholerae TSI: A/A, V. parahaemolyticus TSI: K/A
  • both V. cholerae and V. parahaemolyticus are A/A
  • V. cholerae TSI: K/A, V. parahaemolyticus TSI: A/A
  • both V. cholerae and V. parahaemolyticus are K/A
22
how can you differ V. cholerae and V. parahaemolyticus on TCBS agar?
  • V. cholerae is clear, V. parahaemolyticus is red
  • V. cholerae is blue green, V. parahaemolyticus is yellow
  • V. cholerae is yellow, V. parahaemolyticus is blue green
  • there is no difference
23
what organism is associated with the presence of "rice water stool"
  • V. parahaemolyticus
  • V. cholerae
  • Y. entercolitica
  • E. coli
24
which virulence factor(s) are found in V. parahaemolyticus
  • hemolysin
  • enterotoxin
  • cytotoxin
  • all of the above
25
which allows for the development of septicemia as a result from V. vulnificus?
  • high iron levels in serum
  • high calcium levels in serum
  • high magnesium levels in serum
  • high sodium levels in serum
26
which organism fits the following
- lactose fermenter on MAC
- indole positive
- halophilic, grows in conditions up to 1% NaCl
- 3-6mm in string test
- sensitive to 10/150 micrograms of O/129
- ferments salicin
  • A. hydrophila
  • V. vulnificus
  • V. parahaemolyticus
  • V. cholerae
27
_____ fermentation will distinguish V. vulnificus from other Vibrio spp.
  • salicin
  • sodium deoxycholate
  • iron
  • hemolysin
28
what compound is considered vibriostatic
  • ciprofloxacin
  • O/129
  • none of the above
  • O157:H7
29
what organism is positive for oxidase, motility, lysine decarboxylase, indole, DNase, and gelatinase
  • Aeromonas
  • none of the above
  • all of the above
  • Vibrio spp.
30
which is a valid test for differentiating Vibrio spp. from Aeromonas
  • ornithine decarboxylase
  • indole
  • motility
  • oxidase
31
swimming in warm water with an open wound can result in ______ exposure, potentially causing skin infections and septicemia
  • Burkholderia cepacia
  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Aeromonas hydrophila
32
what organism is thought to smell like almonds, cause wound infections, and produce a pigment called violacein?
  • Pseudomonas fluorescens
  • Alcaligenes spp.
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Chromobacterium violaceum
33
what does a positive ALA (aminolevulinic acid)/porphyrin test indicate?
  • ability to produce factor X and V
  • ability to produce factor X
  • proves sensitivity to ALA
  • ability to produce factor V
34
what is the importance of HBA (horse blood agar)
  • allows for visualization of hemolysis caused by Haemophilus spp.
  • provides factor V to grow H. parainfluenzae
  • none of the above
  • demonstrates satellitism when streaked with S. aureus and any Haemophilus spp.
35
T/F - the HACEK group contains these organisms:
- Aggregatibacter aphrophilus (formerly Haemophilus aphrophilus)
- Aggregatibacter actinomycetocomitans
- Cardiobacterium hominis
- Edwardsiella tarda
- Kingella kingae
  • false
  • true
36
what is the clinical significance of the HACEK group
  • they're associated with chronic bacterial endocarditis
  • they cause about 3% of cases of subacute bacterial endocarditis
  • the group is resistant to most weidely used antibiotics
  • they're some of the most infectious bacterial agents in America
37
which organism fits the following:
- smells like liquid glue
- requires factor X for isolation but neither X or V for growth
- catalase/indolerease negative
- glucose and lactose positive
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetocomitans
  • Kingella kingae
  • Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
38
which organism is most often associated with localized juvenile periodontitis
  • Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
  • Haemophilus ducreyi
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetocomitans
39
which member of the HACEK group fits the following:
- pleomorphic, flowery arrangement on gram stains
- alpha hemolytic
- oxidase, nitrate, and indole positive
- catalase negative
- glucose, maltose, sucrose positive
  • Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetocomitans
  • Kingella kingae
40
which member of the HACEK group fits the following:
- bleach odor
- no carbohydrate fermentation
- oxidase/nitrate positive
- associated with human bites/fist fights - leading to infections in IV drug users who lubricate their needles with saliva
  • Eikenella corrodens
  • Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetocomitans
  • Kingella kingae
41
which genus contains 17 species that are normal flora in the GI/nasopharyngeal tracts of dogs, cats, and other wild animals?
  • Pasteurella
  • Haemophilius
  • Capnocytophaga
  • Echerichia
42
a child presents to the ER with an infected cat bite that is releasing purulent matieral and has become rapidly inflamed over the past day. a swab was taken and yielded the following:
- catalase/oxidase positive
- glucose fermenting
- weak acid production in TSI
which organism is the most likely culprit?
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Capnocytophaga ochracea
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Capnocytophaga canimorsus
43
how can you differentiate the Capnocytophaga species that infect humans vs cats/dogs?
  • human species are oxidase positive/catalase negative, cat/dog species are the opposite
  • human species are oxidase negative/catalase positive, cat/dog species are the opposite
  • human species are oxidase/catalase positive, cat/dog species are oxidase/catalase negative
  • human species are oxidase/catalase negative, cat/dog species are oxidase/catalase positive
44
what makes Capnocytophaga a dangerous pathogen?
  • human species are extremely contagious
  • produces immunosuppressive factors
  • species are resistant to many forms of treatment
  • few organisms are required to cause an infection
45
what do H. influenzae and H. aegyptius have in common?
  • will satellite around NAD producing colonies like S. aureus
  • ALA negative
  • all of the above
  • require X and V factor
46
which organism is responsible for Brazilian purpuric fever
  • A. aphrophilus
  • H. parainfluenzae
  • H. aegyptius
  • H. influenzae
47
which Haemophilus species fits the following:
- ALA positive
- requires factor V for growth
- gamma hemolysis on HBA
  • H. ducreyi
  • H. influenzae
  • H. aegyptius
  • H . parainfluenzae
48
which Haemophilus spp. appears as a "school of fish" or fingerprint arrangements microscopically
  • H. aphrophilius
  • H. ducreyi
  • H. aegyptius
  • H. parainfluenzae
49
which Haemophilus species is ALA positive and X negative
  • H. parainfluenzae
  • H. influenzae
  • H. aegyptius
  • H. ducreyi
50
how can you differentiate between H. influenzae and H. aegyptius
  • H. influenzae is beta hemolytic on HBA, H. aegyptius is gamma hemolytic
  • H. influenzae is xylose positive, H. aegyptius is xylose negative
  • H. influenzae is XV positive, H. aegyptius is XV negative
  • H. influenzae is xylose negative, H. aegyptius is xylose positive
51
which is a common trait in infections casued by Bartonella spp.
  • infections typically manifest in the lungs
  • they are transmitted between poeple via infected blood products
  • they induce excessive apoptosis
  • they infect RBCs/vascular endothelial cells
52
a 23 year old female presents with a wound caused by a cat scratch. there is a papule at the wound site, she is experiencing fever, swollen lymph nodes, anorexia, malaise, and arthralgia. what is the likely cause
  • Capnocytophaga cynodegmi
  • Bartonella henselae
  • Bartonella bacilliformis
  • Pasteurella multocida
53
a student returns from studying abroad in Peru and presents with acute fever and anemia. he is sent away with antibiotics but returns months later with red-purple hemangiomatous lesions along the extremities. what is likely the casuative agent
  • Bartonella quintana
  • Bartonella henselae
  • Brucella suis
  • Bartonella bacilliformis
54
an unhoused man presents with myalgia, splenomegaly, shin pain, and a relapsing fever. he states that he recently dealt with a case of lice and shows bites on his arms and torso. what is the causative agent
  • Bartonella bacilliformis
  • Bartonella henselae
  • Brucella suis
  • Bartonella quintana
55
aside from viridians streptococci and the HACEK group, which organisms may be responsible for endocarditis?
  • all of the above
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Bartonella spp.
  • Capnocytophaga spp.
56
which organism can induce bacillary peliosis?
  • Bartonella henslae
  • Brucella suis
  • Pseudomonas stutzeri
  • Bordetella pertussis
57
what is the best way to distinguish between Bartonella spp?
  • none of the above
  • string test/O/129 sensitivity
  • oxidase/catalase testing
  • PCR or serological testing
58
what about Brucella makes it difficult to grow?
  • it has complex growth requirements
  • all of the above
  • it's an intracellular organism
  • it is a slow growing organism
59
T/F - DNA analysis has found that there is only one species of Brucella (B. melitensis) with several biovariants, but the biovariants are still referred to by their original species designation
  • false
  • true
60
from which animals did B. melitensis originate?
  • goat, sheep
  • swine
  • humans
  • cattle
61
from which animals did B. suis originate?
  • goat, sheep
  • swine
  • cattle
  • dogs
62
from which animals did B. abortis originate?
  • cattle
  • goat, sheep
  • swine
  • dogs
63
a lab tech presents with an undulant fever after handling patient specimens that came from a dairy farmer. upon culturing, the lab tech's result showed they were infected by a pathogen positive for all of the following: catalase, oxidase, h2s, urease, and nitrate. which is the most likely?
  • B. abortus
  • B. melitensis
  • B suis
  • B. canis
64
which organism fits the following:
- "gull wing" Gram stain
- microaerophilic/capnophilic requirements
- grows at a wide variety of temperatures
- enterotoxins produced may yield diarrhea
  • Campylobacter fetus
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Escerhichia coli
  • Campylobacter coli
65
describe the microscopic appearance of Helicobacter pylori
  • gull wing/wavy shaped GNR
  • pleomorphic with bipolar staining
  • flowery looking arrangement, GNR
  • small, curved U/C shaped GNR
66
which organism can be identified through the urea breath test or rapid urease reaction using a gastic biopsy specimen as a result of the lesions it causes?
  • B. suis
  • C. jejuni
  • L. pneumophila
  • H. pylori
67
which media is best for isolating Legionella pneumophila?
  • cetrimide
  • HBS (horse blood)
  • none of the above
  • BCYE (buffered charcoal-yeast extract agar)
68
which organism fits the following:
- growth on BCYE, growth resembles a broken windshield/speckly glass
- causative agent of Pontiac fever
- pale yellowreen fluorescence under long wave fluorescent lights
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Brucella suis
69
which organism fits the following:
- best grown on media with charcoal
- Bordet-Gengou with 20% blood yields "mercury drop" growth
- Regan-Lowe media used for transport yields white, pearly colonies
- generally IDed with PCR, direct fluorescent antibody, or slide agglutination
  • Bartonella quintana
  • Brucella suis
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Bartonella henselae
70
etiologic agent of whooping cough, a disease that primarily infects children under 5
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Brucella melitensis
  • Bartonella canis
  • Bartonella quintana
71
which organism fits the following:
- grows best on agar with cysteine (BCYE or others)
- highly infectious
- uses direct fluorescence and serum agglutination for ID
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Streptobacillus monoliformis
  • Bartonella canis
  • Francisella tularensis
72
glandular fever, tick fever, deer fly fever and rabbit fever are all the same disease, caused by ______________
  • Brucella spp.
  • F. tularensis
  • B. quintana
  • B. henselae
73
what causes L forms?
  • autophagy
  • loss of cell wall
  • phagocytosis by macrophages
  • disintegration of nucleus
74
which organism fits the following:
- microaerophilic
- GNR that forms chains resembling beads (or perhaps an earthworm)
- shows irregular, fried egg looking colonies with L forms on BHI
- yields "fluff balls" or "bread crumbs" in broth
- associated with rat bites in the USA
  • Streptobacillus monoliformis
  • Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Kingella kingae
75
to which concentration(s) of O/129 is Aeromonas hydrophila resistant?
  • 10 and 150 micrograms
  • 10 micrograms
  • 150 micrograms
  • it is sensitive to all
76
describe the appearance of Aeromonas hydrophila on CIN agar
  • fried egg colonies
  • wide and feathery colonies
  • bullseye colonies
  • flower shaped colonies
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