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1
muscarinic receptors
Acetylcholine

Agonist action = Increase SLUDD (salvation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea/defecation and digestion) * pilocarpine, bethanechol

Antagonist action = Decrease SLUDD * atropine, oxybutynin
2
Nicotinic receptors
Acetylcholine

Agonist action = Increase HR, BP *nicotine

Antagonist action = Neuromuscular blockade *rocuronium
3
Alpha-1 (mainly peripheral)
Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

Agonist action = smooth muscle vasoconstriction, INCREASE BP * phenylephrine, dopamine (dose-dependent)

Antagonist action = smooth muscle vasodilation, DECREASE BP * alpha-1 blockers = doxazosin, carvedilol, phentolamine
4
Alpha-2 (mainly brain; central)
Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

Agonist action = DECREASE release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, DECREASE BP * clonidine, brimonidine

Antagonist action = INCREASE BP * ergot alkaloids, yohimbine
5
Beta-1 (mainly heart)
Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

Agonist action = INCREASE myocardial contractility, CO, HR *dobutamine, isoproterenol, dopamine (dose-dependent)

Antagonist action = DECREASE CO, HR * Beta-1 selective blockers - metoprolol and non-selective beta-blockers - propranolol, carvedilol
6
Beta-2 (mainly lungs)
Epinephrine

Agonist action = Bronchodilation *albuterol, terbutaline, isoproternol

Antagonist action = Bronchoconstriction *non-selective beta-blockers
7
Dopamine
Dopamine

Agonist action = renal, cardiac and CNS effects * Levodopa, pramipexole

Antagonist action = renal, cardiac and CNS effects * first-generation antipsychotics *haloperidol, metoclopramide
8
Serotonin
Serotonin 5-HT

Agonist action = platelet, GI and psychiatric effects * triptans (sumatriptan)

Antagonist action = platelet, GI and psychiatric effects * ondansetron, second-generation antipsychotics (quetiapine)
9
Acetylcholinesterase
Breaks down acetylcholine
10
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantamine

Block acetylcholinesterase = increase in Ach levels used to treat Alzhimer's dz
11
Angiotensin-converting enzyme ACE
Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II (a potent vasoconstrictor)
12
ACE inhibitors
lisinopril
ramipril

Inhibits production on angiotensin II = Decrease vasoconstriction and Decrease aldosterone secretion; used to treat HTN, HF and kidney dz
13
Catechol-O-methyltransferase COMT
Breaks down levodopa
14
COMT inhibitors
Entacapone

Blocks COMT enzyme to prevent peripheral breakdown of levodopa = Increase duration of action of levodopa

Tx Parkinson dz
15
Cyclooxygenase COX
converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandins = cause inflammation
and thromboxane A2 = causes platelet aggregation
16
COX
NSAIDs - aspirin, ibuprofen

Block COX enzyme = Decrease prostaglandins and thromboxane A2

Tx pain/inflammation and Decrease platelet activation/aggregation (aspirin)
17
Monoamine oxidase MAO
Breaks down catecholamines - DA, NE, epinephrine, 5-HT
18
MAO inhibitors
TIPS

Phenelzine (Nardil)
Tranylcypromine (Parnate)
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline
Rasagline
Methylene blue
Linezolid

Block MAO = INcrease catecholamine levels (tx depression)
19
What happens if catecholamines increase too much
Toxic effects occurs - HTN crisis or serotonin syndrome
20
Vitamin K epoxide reductase
Converts vitamin K to the active form required for production of select clotting factors

Warfarin
21
What is the drug action of Warfarin?
Blocks Vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme which = Decrease production of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

Tx or prevent blood clots
22
Xanthine oxidase
breaks down hypoxanthine and xanthine into uric acid
23
What is the xanthine oxidase inhibitor?
Allopurinol
24
What does allopurinol do?
Blocks xanthine oxidase enzyme which = Decrease uric acid production

Prevent gout attack
25
What is pharmcodynamics?
what the drug does to the body
(effect that a drug has on the body)
26
What is the warning risks from concomitant use of benzodiazepines and opioids?
Profound sedation
Respiratory depression
Coma
Death
27
What is pharmacokinetics?
What the body does to the drug (ADME)
28
What is absorption?
with oral drugs = occurs in small intestine
29
What is distribution?
through the blood and dispersed throughout the tissues
30
What is metabolism?
enzymatic reactions
31
What is excretion?
removal of the drug or end products (metabolites) from body
32
List of major CYP inhibitors
G Love PACMAN

Grapefruit

Protease inhibitors - PIs = ritonavir

Azole antifungals = fluconazole, itraconazole, ketoconazole, posaconazole, voriconazole and isavuconazonium

Cyclolsporine, cimetidine, cobicstat

Macrolides - clarithromycin and erythromycin (not azithromycin)

Amiodarone - and dronedarone

Non-DHP CCBs - diltiazem and verapamil
33
What effects dose CYP inhibitors have on substrates?
DECREASE metabolism

INCREASED serum concentrations and INCREASED clinical effect

INhibitors = INcreased effects/levels/ADRs/toxicities of substrates
34
What effects do CYP inhibitors have on prodrugs?
DECREASED conversion to the active drug and decrease levels
35
What are possible actions to take when there is a problem with CYP Inhibitors?
Decrease dose of substrate (UNless Prodrug)

Use alternate drug to avoid combination
36
List the major CYP Inducers
PS PORCS

Phenytoin

Smoking

Phenobarbital

Oxcarbazepine and eslicarbazepine

Rifampin and rifabutin, rifapentine

Carbamazepine = also AUTO-INDUCER

St. John's Wort
37
What effect do Inducers have on substrates?
Increase metabolism

DECREASE serum concentrations and DECREASED clinical effect

InDucers = Decreased effects/levels of substrates
38
What effect do inducers have on Prodrugs?
INCREASE conversion to the active drug and level increases
39
What actions to take when there is a problem with a CYP Inducer?
Increase dose of substrate (unless a PRODRUG)

Use alternate drug to AVOID combination
40
List the Anticoagulants guidelines
American College of Chest Physicians - CHEST
*Stroke prevention in AFib
*Venous Thromboembolism
41
List the Cardiovascular Diseases Guidelines
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association - ACC/AHA
*Acute Coronary Syndromes
*Atrial Fibrillation
*Heart Failure
*High Cholesterol
*Hypertension
42
List Diabetes guidelines
American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists - AACE
American Diabetes Association - ADA
43
List the Infectious Disease guidelines
Infectious Diseases Society of America - IDSA
HI V/AIDS - US Dept. of Health and Human Services - AIDSInfo
Sexually transmitted infections - Centers for Disease Control - CDC
44
List oncology guidelines
American Society of Clinical Oncology - ASCO
National Comprehensive Cancer Network - NCCN
45
List pediatric guidelines
The American Academy of Pediatrics - AAP
46
List the pregnancy/women's health guidelins
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists -ACOG
47
List psychiatric conditions guidelines
American Psychiatric Association APA Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental disorders - DSM-5
48
List the pulmonary conditions guidelines
Asthma - Global Initiative for Asthma - GINA
COPD - Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease - GOLD
49
List Renal disease guidelines
Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes - KDIGO
50
List vaccines guidelines
Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices - ACIP
Centers for Disease Control - CDC
51
Orange Book (FDA)
List of approved drugs that can be interchanged with generics based on therapeutic equivalence
52
Pink Book (CDC)
Information on epidemiology and vaccine preventable diseases
53
Pink Sheet (Pharma Intelligence)
News reports on regulatory, legislative, legal and business developments
54
Purple Book (FDA)
List of biological drug products, including biosimilars
55
Red Book, Pharmacy
Drug pricing information
56
Red Book, Pediatrics (AAP)
Summaries of pediatric infectious diseases, antimicrobial treatment and vaccinations
57
Yellow Book (CDC)
Information on the health risks of international travel, required vaccines and prophylaxis medications
58
Green Book (FDA)
Information on approved animal drug products
59
List the daily frequency patches
Methylphenidate - Daytrana - hip - QAM 2hrs prior to school

Nicotine - NicoDerm CQ -

Rivastigmine - Exelon

Rotigotine

Selegiline

Testosterone - nightly not on scrotum
60
List daily frequency patches with special instructions
Lidocaine - Lidoderm *1-3 patches, on for 12 hours, then off 12hours PRN

Nitroglycerin - on for 12-14 hours, then off for 10-12 hours
61
Twice daily patches
diclofenac
62
Twice weekly patches
Estradiol (Alora, Vivelle-Dot)
Oxybutynin (Oxytrol)
63
Weekly patches
Buprenorphine - Butrans

Clonidine - Catapres-TTS

Estradiol - Climara

Estradiol/Levonorgestrel

Ethinyl estradiol/Norelgestromin - Xulane - back, abdomen, or buttock *weekly for 3 weeks, off for the 4th week
64
Every 72 hours patches
Fentanyl - Duragesic - Q72H, if it wears off after 48H, change to Q48H

Scopolamine - Transderm Scop - Q72H, if needed
65
Drugs with leaching/adsorption/absorption issues with PVC containers
Leach Absorbs To Take In Nutrients
Lorazepam
Amiodarone
Tacrolimus
Taxanes
Insulin
Nitroglycerin
66
Saline (no dextrose)
A DIAbetic Can't Eat Pie

Ampicillin
Daptomycin
Infliximab
Ampicillin/Sulbactam (Unysan)
Caspofungin
Ertapenem
Phenytoin
67
Dextrose (No saline)
BOAS

Bactrim
Oxaliplatin
Amphotericin B
Synercid (Quinupristin/Dalfopristin)
68
Drugs with filter requirements
GAL PLAT whose head is flat
Golimumab
Amiodarone
Lorazepam
Phenytoin
Lipids
Amphotericin B
Taxanes (except docetaxel )
69
Do not refrigerate
(Dear Sweet Pharmacist, Freezing Makes Me Edgy)
Dexmedetomidine
SMX/TMP
Phenytoin - crystallizes
Furosemide - crystallizes
Moxifloxacin
Metronidazole
Enoxaparin
70
Protect from light during administration
Protect Every Necessary Med from Daylight
Phytonadione
Epoprostenol
Nitroprusside
Micafungin
Doxycycline
71
Which drugs cause Hypertension INCREASE BP?
INCrEASeD
Immunosuppressants
NSAIDS
Cocaine
Erythropoiesis-stimulating Agents
Amphetamine and ADHD drugs
Steroids
Decongestants - sudafed
72
What conditions Increase BP?
Renal insufficiency/failure
Pregnancy
Excess salt intake
Obesity
Adrenal tumors
73
Which drugs cause Hypotension?
Antihypertensives
Vasodilators
Opioids
Benzodiazepines
Anesthetics
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
74
What conditions cause Hypotension?
Anaphylaxis
Blood loss
Infection (sepsis)
Dehydration (orthostatic hypotension)
75
Which drugs cause Tachycardia INCREASE HR?
Stimulants - ADHD, weight loss drugs
Decongestants
Beta agonists overuse
Theophylline
Anticholinergic - tricyclics, antihistamines
Bupropion
Antipsychotics
Excess caffeine/nicotine, illicit drug use
Vasodilators - nitrates, hydralazine, dihydopyridine CCBs
76
Which conditions cause Tachycardia?
Arrhythmias - Afib, ventricular tachycardia
Hyperthyroidism
Anemia
Dehydration
Anxiety, stress, pain
Hypoglycemia
Infection
Drug withdrawal
Serotonin syndrome
77
Which drugs cause Bradycardia?
Beta-blockers
Non-Dihydropyridine CCBs
Digoxin
Clonidine, guanfacine
Antiarrhythmics - class III
Opioids
Sedatives
Anesthetics
Neuromuscular blockers
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
78
List conditions that cause Bradycardia
Arrhythmias - sinus bradycardia
Hypothyroidism
79
What drugs cause Tachypnea? Respiratory Rate
Stimulants
80
List conditions that cause Tachypnea?
Astma and COPD
Anxiety, stress
Keotacidosis
Pneumonia
81
List drugs and conditons that causes Respiratory Depression
Opioids
Sedatives

Hypothyroidism
82
List drugs and conditions that causes Hyperthermia
Inhaled anesthetics
Antipsychotics
Topiramate

Fever
Hyperthyroidism - thyroid storm
Trauma
Cancer
Serotonin syndrome
83
List conditions that causes Hypothermia
Exposure to cold
Hypothyroidism - myxedema coma
Hypoglycemia
84
How to look for medication problems in a patient case
Untreated medical condition
Medications used without an indication
Improper drug selection
Dose that is too low or high
Therapeutic duplicaiton
Lack of patient understanding about medication
Drug allergy
Drug interaction
Improper use of medication
Failure to receive medication
Adverse drug reaction
Nonadherence
85
Mean
average
86
Median
the value in the middle of the ranked ordered list
87
Mode
The value that occurs most frequently in a given data set.
88
Range
the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution
89
T/F If THE CI includes 0 then endpoint not statistically significant
TRUE
90
T/F If the result is statistically significant the CI range does not include 0
TRUE
91
What is determined when comparing Difference Data means?
Statistical significance
Ex. Difference (95% CI)
38 (18-58) - No 0 = Statistical Significant

0.313 (-0.26-0.89) - Includes 0 = Not statistical significant
92
What is determined when comparing Ratio Data (Relative Risk, Odds Ratio, Hazard Ratio)?
Statistical significance
Ex. Relative Risk (95%)
0.92(0.61-1.29) - includes 1 = Not statistical significant

0.85 (0.72-0.99) - No 1 = Statistically significant
93
Ratio data that includes 1
Not statistical significant
94
Ratio data that do NOT includes 1
Statistically significant
95
How do you round NNT result of 52.1?
round up to 53
96
How do you round NNH result of 41.9?
round down 41
97
List drugs that cause KIDNEY Dz?
Aminoglycosides
Amphotericin B
Cisplatin
Cyclosporine
Loop diuretics
NSAIDS
Polymyxins
Radiographic contrast dye
Tacrolimus
Vancomycin
98
Crockcroft-Gault equation
CrCl (ml/min) = 140-pt age x wt kg / 72 x SCr x 0.85 if female

Use actual body weight if < IBW

Use IBW if normal weight (by BMI)

Use adjusted body weight if overweight by BMI
99
What is GFR used for in clinical settings?
used for staging kidney disease and for dosing select drugs:
Metformin
SGLT2I
ACE inhibitors and ARBs for Albuminuria:
Who?
Why?
How?
100
What?
Who = ALL patients with albuminuria

Why = To PREVENT kidney dz progression

How = Inhibit renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system RAAS, causing efferent arteriolar dilation

What = REDUCE pressure in the glomerulus, DECREASE albuminuria and provide cardiovascular protection
101
What are the steps for treating severe HYPERKALEMIA?
1. Stabilize the heart by using CALCIUM GLUCONATE (prevent arrhythmias)

2. Move it- Regular insulin, Dextrose, Sodium bicarbonate, Albuterol (shift K intracellularly)

3. Remove it - Furosemide, Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, Patiromer, Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate, Hemodialysis (eliminate K from the body)
102
What is the preferred Hepatitis C Virus regimens?
2-3 Direct-acting antivirals DAAS with DIFFERENT MOA
103
NS3/4A protease inhibitors
-previr

P for PI

Glecaprevir, Grazoprevir, Paritaprevir, Voxilaprevir
104
NS5A Replication Complex Inhibitor
-asvir

A for NS5A

Ledipasvir, Ombitasvir, Pibrentasvir, Velpatasvir
105
NS5B polymerase inhibitors
-BUVIR (B for NS5B)
dasabuvir
sofosbuvir
106
T/F Dasabuvir + Sofosbuvir can be used together in a combination regimen for HCV
FALSE
has same MOA
107
T/F Take protease inhibitors with FOOD
TRUE

Protease Inhibitors & Grub (PIG) Take WITH FOOD
108
Hepatitis A Virus
Acute
Fecal-oral
Vaccine
Supportive Tx
109
Hepatitis B Virus
Acute and chronic
Blood, body fluid transmission
Vaccine
PEG-INF or NRTI (Tenofovir or entecavir) tx
110
Hepatitis C Virus
Acute and chronic
Blood, body fluid transmission
No vaccine
Tx naive - DAA combination
DAA combination + RBV or
DAA combination + RBV + PEG-INF
111
Intererons
Alfa - HBV. HCV and some cancers

Beta - Multiple Sclerosis MS
112
T/F Interferons do not provide a cure and are hard to take
TRUE
113
side effects of interferons
Flu-like symptoms

BW - Neuropsychiatric, autoimmune, ischemic or infectious disorder if used with ribavirin, teratogenic/anemia risk
114
Acute liver toxicity labs
Inc. AST/ALT
115
Chronic liver disease and cirrhosis
Increased AST/ALT, Alk Phos, Tbili, LDH, PT/INR
Decreased albumin
116
Alcoholic liver disease
Increased AST > increased ALT
Increased GGT
117
Hepatic encephalopathy
increased ammonia
118
jaundice
increase Tbili
119
How do round on the exam?
Never round until the last step in the calculation
120
tsp
teaspoon (5ml)
121
tbsp
tablespoon (15ml)
122
1 fl oz
30 mL
123
1 cup
8 oz, 240 mL
124
1 pint
16 oz, 480 mL
125
1 quart
2 pints
960 mL
126
1 gallon
4 quarts
3,840 mL
127
1kg
2.2lbs
128
1 oz
28.4g
129
1lb
454 g
130
1 grain
65 mg
131
K, Na, and other monovalent ions
1 mEq = 1 mmol
132
Ca and other divalent ions
1 mEq = 0.5 mmol
133
inch
2.54 cm
134
meter
100 cm
135
Setting up Proportions
Numerators of both ratios have to be same unit.
Denominators of both ratios have to be same unit.

Match both numerators and both denominators
Match numerator and denominator of each fraction
136
Ratio Relationship
4:8 = 4/8 = 1/2
or 1 part to 2 parts
137
Follow the rules of math
B-PEMDAS
Billy, Please Eat Moms Delicious Apple Strudel
Brackets - Parentheses - Exponents - Multiplication and Division - Addition and Subtraction
138
Before submitting your answer
Does the answer match the question
Is the answer in the correct units
Is the answer rounded correctly
Does the answer make sense
139
Normal Saline (NS)
0.9% (w/v) NaCl
140
1/2 NS
half normal saline 0.45%
141
1/4 NS
0.22% normal saline
142
D5W
5% dextrose in water
143
D20W
20% dextrose in water
144
Combination fluids
D5NS - 5% dextrose and 0.9% NaCl in water

D51/2NS - 5% dextrose and 0.45% NaCl in water
145
NaCl dissociates into
Na+ and Cl-

2 particles and Valence =1
146
CaCl2 dissociates into
Ca2+ and Cl- and Cl-
3 particles and Valence = 2
147
Carbs in EN formulas
4 kcal
148
Fat EN formulas
9 kcal
149
Protein in EN formula
4 kcal
150
EN formulas
Ensure
Osmolite
Jevity
Glucerna
151
Dextrose monohydrate (glucose) = ___ kcal
3.4
152
Glycerol/Glycerin = ---kcal
4.3
153
Injectable Lipid Emulsion (ILE) 10%
1.1 kcal/mL
154
injectable lipid emulsion 20%
2 kcal/mL
155
Injectable Lipid Emulsion (ILE) 30%
3 kcal/mL
156
Amino Acid solutions (Aminosyn, FreAmine)
4 kcal
157
5 feet 6 inc how many inc tall
5 x 12 = 60 inches + 6 = 66 inches
158
6 feet 3 in how many in tall
6 x 12 = 72 +3 =75 inches
159
How do you interpret ABGs?
ROME
1. Look at pH (acidosis - low or alkalosis - high)
2. Check the CO2 (resp. indicator) - less than 35 (alkalosis) more than 45 (acidosis)
3. Check the HCO3 (metabolic indicator) - less than 22 (acidosis) more than 26 (alkalosis)
4. Determine primary disorder (matches the pH)
5. Determine if its compensated (pH returns to normal or near normal)
160
List drugs that require DECREASE dose OR INCREASE Interval in CKD
Anti-infectives - aminoglycosides = INCREASE dosing, beta-lactam antibiotics excpe antistaphylococcal penicillins and ceftriaxone; Fluconazole, Quinolones except moxifloxcin and Vancomycin

Cardiovascular Drugs
LMWHs -enoxaparin
Rivaroxaban for AFib
Apixaban for AFib
Dabigatran for AFib

Gastrointestinal Drugs
H2RAs famotidine, ranitidine
Metoclopramide

Bisphosphontes
Lithium
161
Drugs that are contraindicated in CKD
Contraindicated Drugs IF:

CrCl < 60
-nitrofurantoin

CrCl < 50
-TDF (Stribild, Compera, Atripla, Symfi, Symfli Lo)
-Voriconazole IV

CrCl < 30
-TAF (Genvoya, Biktarvy, Descovy, Odefsey, Symtuza)
-NSAIDS
-Dabigatran (DTE/PE)
-Rivaroxaban (DVT/PE)
-SGLT 2 Inhibs (empaglizflosin, etc)
-Metformin
-Meperidine = *seizures*
162
List the drugs with BOX WARNINGS for LIVER DAMAGE
Acetaminophen
Amiodarone
Isoniazid
Ketoconazole
Methotrexate
Nefazodone
Nevirapine
NRTIs
Propylthiouracil
Tipranavir
Valproic Acid
163
What is pharmacopeias?
Refers to a list of medicinal drugs, with preparation instructions
164
What does the US Pharmacopeia do?
Sets the standards for preparation, strength, quality and purity of human and animal drugs, including both manufacutred and compounded drugs.
165
Hazardous key drugs
Antineoplastic Drugs - Chemotherapeutics

Non-Antineoplastic Hazardous Drugs on the NIOSH List
Abortifacient - Misoprostol
Antibiotics - Chloramphenicol, Telavancin
Antiocagulants - Warfarin
Antifungals - Fluconazole, Voriconazole
Antiretrovirals, HIV - Abacavir, Entecavir, Nevirapine, Zidovudine
Antivirals, Cytomegalovirus - Cidofovir, Ganciclovir, Valganciclovir
Acne -Isotrentinoin
Arrhythmias - Dronedarone
Autoimmune Conditions - Acitretin (psroasos), Leflunomide, Terflunomide, Fingolimod, Interferon Beta -1b
Benign Prostate Hypertrophy BPH - Dutasteride, Finasteride

Depression - Paroxetine
Diabetes - Exanetide
Dyslipidemia - Lomitapide

Seizures/Epilepsy
Clobazam, Clonazepam
Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Esilcarbazepine, Divalproex, Fosphenytoin, Phenytoin, Topiramate, Vigabatrin, Zonisamide

Gout - Colchicine

Heart Failure - Ivabradine, Spironolactone
Hepatitis - Ribavirin
Hormones - Androgens, Estrogens, Progesterones, SERMS, Ulipristal
Hypercalcemia of Malignancy - Pamidronate, Zoledronic Acid and osteoporsis
Hyperthyroidism - Methimazole, pROPYLTHIOURACIL

Insomnia - Temazepam, Triazolam

Migraine - Dihydroergotamine

Parkinson Dz - Apomorphine, Rasagline
Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension PAH - Ambrisentan, Bosentan, Macitentan, Riociguat

Renal Dz - Darbepoetin alfa

Schizophrenia - Ziprasidone

Transplant - Azathioprine, Cyclosporine, Mycophenolate, Tacrolimus, Sirolimus
166
List the live vaccines
COZY IV RM

Cholera
Oral Typhoid
Zoster - Zostavax
Yellow Fever
Intranasal Influenza
Varicella
Rotavirus
MMR
167
What is the general rule for All Vaccines?
Vaccines can usually be given at the same time - same visit or same day (EXCEPT in pts with asplenia, Prevnar and Menactra should be be separated by 4 WEEKS)

Multiple live vaccines can be given on the same day or (if not given on the same day) spaced 4 WEEKS apart - EXCEPT NO separation is required for oral rotavirus vaccines

If a vaccine series requires > 1 dose, the intervals between doses can be extended without restarting the series, but they CANNOT be shortened in most cases.
168
What is the spacing for live Vaccines and Antibody?
MMR and varicella-containing vaccines not zoster REQURIE Separation from antibody-containing products - Blood transfusions, IVIG

Vaccine --> 2 WEEKS --> Antibody-containing product

Antibody-containing product --> 3 months or longer --> Vaccine
169
What is recommended for administration of vaccine and antibody for post-exposure prophylaxis of certain diseases?
Simultaneous administration - in the form of immunoglobulin

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Rabies
Tetanus
170
List the invalid contraindications to vaccination
Vaccinations may be given, if indicated in the following situations:
*Mild acute illness - slight fever, mild diarrhea
*Current antimicrobial treatment
*Previous local skin reaction mild/moderate from a vaccine
*Allergies - bird feathers, penicillin, allergies to products not in the vaccine
*Pregnancy - EXCEPT LIVE VACCINES, breastfeeding, preterm birth
*Recent tuberculin skin test
*Immunosuppressed person in the household, recent exposure to the disease or convalescence
*Family history of adverse events to the vaccine
171
Who are recommended for annually influenza vaccine?
All pts age >/= 6 months, unless CI

Any vaccine can be used within the FDA indications

All brand names have FLU in the name - Afluria, Fluzone, FluMist
172
What is the requirement for specific patient considerations for influenza vaccines?
Age 6 months - 8 years (NOT previously vaccinated) = give 2 DOSES (4 WEEKS Apart)

Patients with EGG ALLERGY = Can receive any age-appropriate INACTIVATED Influenza vaccine, even if severe allergy symptoms (wheezing, requiring epinephrine, hypotension or cardiovascular changes)

Administration should be supervised by a HCP who is able to recognize and treat severe allergic reactions. No additional observation period is recommended - beyond the required 15 minutes

FLUBLOK = Egg-Free product approved for age >/= 18 ONLY

Do NOT administer the LIVE influenza vaccine FLUMIST
173
What is the requirement for Pregnant patients when it comes to Influenza vaccination?
Can receive ANY Age-appropriate INACTIVATED INFLUENZA Vaccine

DO NOT administer the LIVE Influenza Vaccine FLUMIST
174
Which influenza vaccine is only indicated for patients age >/= 65?
FLUZONE HIGH-dosed
FLUZONE HIGH-dose Quadrivalent
FLUAD - adjuvanted influenza vaccine
175
How often should a patient receive PCV13?
Only once in their lifetime
176
How many doses of Prevnar PCV13 are recommended?
Give 1 dose - if never received:
*Immunocompromised pts age 6-64 years (sickle cell dz, asplenia, HIV, chronic renal failure, malignancy, transplant, immunosuppressive drugs, including steroids

*Can be considered in patients age >65
177
How many doses of Pneumovax 23 PPSV23 may a patient receive in their lifetime?
1, 2, or 3 doses
178
What is the doses recommendation for Pneumovax 23?
Give 1 dose BEFORE age 65 years:
*Immunocompetent patients age 2-64 (diabetes, heart, lung, or liver dz, alcohol abuse, smokers)

Give 2 doses BEFORE age 65 years:
*Immunocompromised patients age 2-64 (sickle cell dz, asplenia, HIV, chronic renal failure, malignancy, transplant, immunosuppressive drugs, including steroids)

Give 1 dose at age >/= 65 years:
*ALL PATIENTS (whether 0, 1, or 2 doses were received before age 65)
179
What is the prophylaxis treatment for Traveler's Diarrhea?
*Bismuth subsalicylate 524-1050 mg PO 4 x daily WITH MEALS and at BEDTIME
*Antibiotics - Rifaximin preferred (ONLY use if high risk of complications from TD)
180
What is the treatment for Traveler's Diarrhea?
*Mild TD = Loperamide or Bismuth Subsalicylate

*Moderate TD = Loperamide +- antibiotics (Quinolones if low resistance, Azithromycin or Rifaximin)

*Severe TD (including dysentery) = Antibiotics (Azithromycin preferred, quinolones or rifaximin as alternatives) +- Loperamide
181
What are the inactivated travel vaccines?
Hepatitis A - Havrix, VAQTA
Hepatitis B - Engerix-B, Recombivax HB
Hepatitis A/B - Twinrix
Japanese encephalitis - Ixiaro
Meningococcus - Menveo, Menactra
Polio - IPOL
Typhoid-IM -Typhim Vi
182
What are the live travel vaccines?
Cholera-PO (Vaxchora)
Typhoid-PO (Vivotif)
Yellow-fever-SC (YF-VAX)
183
What does lower HLB # means for the surfactant?
More Lipid Soluble = w/o
<10
184
What does higher HLB # means for the sufactant?
More Water Soluble = o/w
>10
185
List the Gram-Positive organisms?
Cocci:
*Clusters = Staphylococcus spp. (MRSA, MSSA)
*Pairs and chains = Strep. pneumonaie (diplococci), Streptococcus spp. (Strep. pyogenes), Enterococcuss spp. (VRE)

Rods:
*Listeria monocytogenes

Anaerobes:
*Peptostreptococcus
*Actinomyces spp.
*Clostridium (clostridiolides spp.)
186
What color stain is gram positive?
purple
187
List the Atypicals organisms?
Chlamydia spp.
Legionella spp.
Myclopasma pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
188
Do Atypicals stain?
Do not gram stain well
189
List gram negative bacteria
Cocci:
*Neisseria spp

Rods:
*Colonize gut enteric (Proteus mirabilis, E. Coli, Klebsiella spp., Serratia spp., Enterobacter cloacae, Citrobacer spp.

Rods:
*Do NOT colonize gut (Pseduomonas aeruginosa, Haemophilus influenzae, Providencia spp.

Coccobacilli
*Acinetobacter baumannii, Bordetella pertussis, Moraxella catarrhalis

Anaerobes:
*Bacteroides fragilis, Prevotella spp.

Curved or spiral shaped Gram-negative rods:
*H. Pylori, Campylobacter spp., Treponema spp., Borrelia spp., Leptospira spp.
190
What is PEK?
Gram negative
Proteus
E. Coli
Klebsella
191
What is HNPEK?
Gram negative
Haempophilus
Neisseria
Proteus
E. Coli
Klebsiella
192
What is CAPES?
Gram negative
Citobacter
Acinetobacter
Providencia
Enterobacter
Serratia; mouth flora (anaerobes) = Peptostreptococcus, Actinomyces
193
What does the S in the MIC culture and susceptibility report means?
Susceptible or Sensitive
Antibodies with S can be an effective treatment
Pick most narrow-spectrum antibiotic that is safe for the patient and adheres to guidelines
194
What is R in the culture and susceptibility report?
Resistant
Antibodies with R should not be selected to treat the bacteria from the culture.
195
List the common Resistant pathogens
Kill Each And Every Strong Pathogen

Klebsiella pneumoniae - ESBL, CRE
Acintobacter baumannii
Enterococcus faecalis, Enterococcus faecium - VRE
Staphylococcus aureus - MRSA
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
196
What are the CLASS EFFECTS for Penicillins?
Avoid in patient with Beta-Lactam ALLERGY
*EXCEPT treatment of syphilis during pregnancy and in HIV patients with poor compliance/follow-up - desensitize and treat with benzathine penicillin

Increase risk of SEIZURES
197
What is Penicillin VK used for in outpatient?
Oral
First-line tx for STREP THROAT and mild nonpurulent SKIN INFECTIONS (no abscess)
198
What is Amoxicillin used for in outpatient?
Oral
First-line tx for ACUTE OTITIS MEDIA - (80-90 mg/kg/day)

Drug of Choice for INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS Prophylaxis before dental procedures (2 grams PO x 1, 30-60 minutes before procedure

H. pylori tx
199
What is Amoxicillin/Clavulanate (Agumentin) used for in outpatient?
Oral
First-line tx for ACUTE OTITIS MEDIA (90 mg/kg/day) and SINUSE INFECTIONS (if antibiotic indicated)
200
How do you decrease diarrhea while take Augmentin?
Use the lowest dose of calvulanate
201
What is Penicillin G Benzathine (Bicillin-L-A) used for inpatient?
Parenteral

Drug of choice for SYPHILIS (2.4 million units IM x 1)
NOT for IV use; can cause death
202
What is Nafcillin used for inpatient/outpatient?
Parenteral/Oral

Dicloxacillin and Oxacillin
*Covers MSSA only - NO MRSA
*NO RENAL DOSE adjustment needed
203
What is pipercillin and tazo bactam (zosyn) used for?
Inpatient Parenteral
Only Penicillin ACTIVE AGAINST PSEUDOMONAS
Extended infusions - 4 hours can be used to maximaze T>MIC
204
What is the CLASS EFFECTS of Cephalosporins?
Do NOT use if pt has PENICILLIN ALLERGY
*EXCEPT = Pediatric Patients with acute otitis media

SEIZURE risk
205
What is 1rst generation Cephalexin (Klefex) used for?
Outpatient oral
Skin Infections (MSSA)
Strep Throat
206
What is 2nd generation Cefuroxime used for?
Outpatient oral
Acute Otitis Media
Commonly-acquired pneumonia (CAP)
Sinus Infection (if antibiotic indicated)
207
What is 3rd generation Cefdinir used for?
Outpatient oral
CAP
Sinus infection (if antibiotic indicated)
208
What is 1rst generation Cefazolin used for?
Inpatient Parenteral
Surgical Prophylaxis
209
What is 2nd generation Cefotetan and Cefoxitin used for?
Inpatient Parenteral
Anaerobic coverage - B. fragilis
Surgical Prophylaxis (colorectal procedures)
Cefotetan can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol ingestion
210
What is 3rd generation Ceftriaxone and Cefotaxime used for?
Inpatient Parenteral
CAP
Meningitis
Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
Pyelonephritis
211
Do ceftriaxone require renal dose adjustment?
No renal dose adjustment
212
Which population do you NOT use Ceftriaxone in?
Neonates (age 0-28 days)
*causes biliary sludging, kernicterus
213
What is Ceftazidime (3rd generation) and Cefepime (4th generation ) used for?
Active against PSEUDOMONAS
214
What is Ceftolozone/Tazobactam and Ceftazidime/Avibactam used for?
MDR Gram-negative organism including PSEUDOMONAS
215
What is Ceftaroline used for?
ONLY beta-lactam ACTIVE against MRSA
216
What are the class effects of Carbapenems?
ALL cover ESBL-producing organisms
ALL EXCEPT (ERTAPENEM) covers PSEUDOMONAS
DO NOT use with PENICILLIN ALLERGY
SEZIURE risk
217
What do carbapenems not cover?
Atypicals
VRE
MRSA
C. diff
Stenotrophomonas
218
What do Ertapenem not cover?
PEA
*Pseudomonas
*Acinetobacter
*Enterococcus
219
What are the common uses of Carbapenems?
- Polymicrobial infx (ex. diabetic foot infx)
- Empiric therapy when resistant organisms are suspected
- Resistant Pseudomonas or Acinetobacter infx (EXCEPT ertapenem)
220
What is the administration of Carbapenems?
ALL are IV ONLY
221
What is Ertapenem diluted in?
Normal Saline
222
What do aminoglycosides do?
Kill Gram-negative fast
Synergistic with beta-lactams for organisms
Low resistance and drug cost

Concentration-Dependent activity
Post-Antibiotic effect = bacterial killing continues after the serum level drops below the MIC
223
What is the issue with aminoglycosides?
Toxicities:
*Renal damage
*Ototoxicity (hearing loss/tinnitusalance problems

Require monitoring
224
What are the Respiratory Quinolones and what are they used for?
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Gemifloxacin

Pneumonia (reliable S. pneumonia activity)
225
What are the Antipseudomonal Quinolones and what are they used for?
Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin

Pseudomonas infections (including pneumonia)
UTIs
Intra-abdominal infections
Traveler's Diarrhea (without dysentery)
226
What is moxifloxacin used for?
Only quinolone NOT RENALLY ADJUSTED
DO NOT use to tx UTIs
227
What is the IV to PO ratio for Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin?
1:1
228
What are some warnings for quinolones?
Caution with CVD
Decrease K/Mg and other QT-prolonging drugs (azole antifungals, antipsychotics, methadone, macrolides)

Avoid in patients with a SEIZURE hx or if using SEIZURE DRUGS

Avoid in children

Watch for tendon rupture, neuropathy, CNS or psychiatric side effects
229
What are counseling recommendations for Quinolones?
AVOID sun exposure
SEPARATE from CATIONS
Monitor Blood Glucose - DM
230
What are common uses for Macrolides?
CAP
Strep-throat - alt. to beta-lactams

Azthromycin - COPD exacerbation, mono for chlamydia, combination therapy for gonorrhea, prophylaxis for MAC, severe travelers diarrhea (including dysentery)

Clarithromycin - H. pylori

Erthromycin - increase gastric motility and used for gastroporesis
231
What is the common azithromycin dosing?
z-pack
two 250 mg tabs PO x 1
Then 250 mg PO daily x 4 days
232
What side effects are seen with Macrolids?
QT prolongation
*caution with CVD
decrease K/Mg and other QT-prolongation drugs ( azole antifungals, antipsychotics, methadone, quinolones)
233
What are the drug interactions for Macrolids?
Clarithromycin and erythromycin are STRONG CYP3A4 Inhibitors; lovastatin and simvastatin are contraindicated (increase risk of muscle toxicity)
234
What are the common uses for Tetracyclines?
Doxycycline and minocycline - CA-MRSA skin infections and acne

Doxycycline first-line for lyme dz,
rocky mountain spotted fever (tick-borne illnesses)
CAP
COPD extractions
sinusitis ( if indicated)
VRE
UTI
monotherapy for chlamydia, combination therapy for gonorrhea

Tetracycline - H. pylori tx
235
Which patient population should NOT use Tetracyclines?
Pregnancy
Breastfeeding
Children < 8 years old
236
What are the common uses for Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim?
CA-MRSA skin infections
UTI
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
237
What is the ratio of SMX/TMP?
5:1
Single strength = 80 mg TMP
Double strength = 160 mg TMP usual dose 1 tablet BID
238
Which allergies should you watch for with SMX/TMP?
SULFA ALLERGY
rash/hives common

rarely severe skin rxns SJS or TEN can occur
if rash with fever seek ER
239
What happens to the INR when used with warfarin if taking SMX/TMP?
INCREASE
use alt antibiotic
240
What is the DOC for UTI?
Nitrofurantoin ( Macrobid, Macrodantin)
241
Do not use Nitrofurantoin if
CrCl < 60
242
What is the dosing of Macrobid and Macrodantin?
MacroBID = BID
Macrodantin =QID
243
What are important counseling for Nitrofurantoin?
take with FOOD to prevent N/ cramping
can discolor urine - brown
244
Which antibiotics cover MSSA?
Dicloxacillin
Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Cefazolin
Cephalexin
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
Ampicillin/Sulbactam
245
Which antibiotics covers CA-MRSA and SSTIs?
SMX/TMP
Doxycycline
Minocycline
Clindamycin (D-test must be performed)
Linezolid
246
Which antibiotics covers Severe SSTIs requiring IV tx or hospitalization (cover MRSA and Streptococci)?
Vancomycin - use alt if MIC >/= 2
Linezolid
Daptomycin
Ceftaroline
247
Which antibiotics covers Nosocomial MRSA?
Vancomycin - use alt if MIC >/= 2
Linezolid
Daptomycin (NOT in Pneumonia)
248
Which antibiotics covers VRE (E. faecalis)?
Pen G
Ampicillin
Linezolid
Daptomycin
Cystitis only = Nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, doxycycline
249
Which antibiotics covers VRE (E. faecium)?
Daptomycin
Linezolid
Cystitis only = Nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, doxycycline
250
Which antibiotics covers Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Pipercillin/Tazobactam
Cefepime
Cetazidime
Ceftazidime/Avibactam
Ceftolozane/Tazobactam
Carbapenems (except ertapenem)
Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Aztreonam
Aminoglycosides
Colistimethate
Polymyxin B
251
Which antibiotics covers ESBL GNR - E. coli, K. pneumonia, P. mirabilis?
Carbapenems
Ceftolozane/Tazobactam
Ceftazidime/Avibactam
252
Which antibiotics covers CRE?
Ceftazidime/Avibactam
Colistimethate
Polymyxin B
253
Which antibiotics covers Acinetobacter bamannii?
Carbapenems (except ertapenem)
254
Which antibiotics covers HNPEK?
Beta-Lactam / beta-lactamase inhibitor
255
Which antibiotics covers Bacteroides fragilis?
Metronidazole
Beta-lactam / beta-lactamase inhibitor
Cefotetan
Cefoxitin
Carbapenems
256
Which antibiotics covers C. difficile infection?
Vancomycin (oral)
Fidaxomicin
257
Which antibiotics covers Atypical organisms?
Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Quinolones
258
Which antibiotics do NOT require renal dose adjustment?
Antistaphylococcal penicllin - Dicloxacillin, Nafcillin
Ceftriaxone
Clindamycin
Doxycycline
Macrolides - Azithromycin and Erythromycin only
Metronidazole
Moxifloxacin
Linezolid
259
List key counseling points for all antibiotics?
Treat Bacterial infections
Complete full course of therapy
Use measuring devices/syringe - do not use household spoons
Can cause - rash, nausea, diarrhea, including Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
260
Key counseling points for Beta-Lactam antibiotics?
Seizures
261
Key counseling points for Quinolones?
CNS effects, including Seizures
Hypo/hyperglycemia
Peripheral neuropathy
Photosensitivity
QT prolongation
Tendon inflammation (tendinitis) or tendon rupture
Avoid in pregnancy, breastfeeding and children
Drug interactions due to binding
Avoid consuming calcium-rich foods (dairy products) with the dose
262
Key counseling points for Macrolids
GI upset
QT prolongation
263
Key counseling points for Tetracyclines
Avoid in pregnancy, breastfeeding and children <8 years old
Drug interaction due to binding
Photosensitivity

Doxycycline (oral) = take with FULL glass of water and remain UPRIGHT for 30 minutes after the dose to AVOID GI irritation
264
Key counseling points for Bactrim
AVOID in pregnancy or breastfeeding, sulfa allergy
Photosensitivity
Crystals in urine
Take with FULL glass of water
265
Key counseling points for Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Do NOT use any alcohol products while using this medication, and for at least 3 days afterward
Nausea
Metallic taste in mouth
266
Key counseling points Macrodantin, Macrobid
Take with FOOD to decrease Nausea
Nausea
Brown discoloration of urine (temporary and harmless)
267
Key counseling points for Mupirocin nasal ointment
1/2 of ointment of tube into each nostril, press at same time and let go, continue for about 1 min
Wash hands after use
Cause burning and itching in nose
268
What is the timing and antibiotic of choice for pre-operative (prior to surgery)
Cefazolin or Cefuroxime
60 min before incision
start of surgery
269
What is the timing and alternative antibiotic of choice for pre-operative (prior to surgery)
Quinolone or Vancomycin
120 mins before incision
start of surgery
270
When do you give an additional dose for intra-operative during surgery?
if surgery > 3-4 hrs
major blood loss
271
What is done post-operative after surgery?
Antibiotics usually not needed
if used D/C within 24 hrs
272
What is the empiric treatment for Meningitis in age < 1 month (neonates)
Ampicillin ( for listeria coverage)
+
Cefotaxime (NO CEFTRIAXONE)
or
Gentamicin
273
What is the empiric tx for Meningitis in age 1 month to 50 years?
Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime
+
Vancomycin
274
What is the empiric tx for Meningitis in age > 50 years or immunocompromised?
Ampicillin (for listeria coverage)
+
Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime
+
Vancomycin
275
When to consider observation for AOM
2-3 days if sx are non-severe ( mild otalgia < 48 hrs or temp < 102.2)

Age 6-23 months sx in one ear only

Age >/= 2 years sx in one or both ears

Use antibiotics if sx do not improve or worsen
276
What is the 1rst step for outpatient CAP assessment and tx?
Look for COMORBIDITIES:
Chronic heart, lung, liver or renal dz
DM
Alcoholism
Malignancy
Asplenia
277
What is the 2nd step for outpatient CAP assessment and tx?
Check for MRSA or Psuedomonas aeruginosa risk factors (prior respiratory isolation of either pathogen or hospitalization with receipt of parenteral antibiotics in the past 90 days
278
What is the 3rd step for outpatient CAP assessment and tx?
Decide whether the pt falls in Cat 1 (no comorbidities)
or Cat 2 (with comorbidities)
279
What is the 4th step for outpatient CAP assessment and tx?
Choose one option within the category, be SURE TO LOOK FOR:
ALLERGIES
DRUG-DZ INTERACTIONS (quinolones and seizures)
DRUG-DRUG INTERACTIONS (QT-prolongation)
Culture results
280
What is the recommended empiric regiment for Outpatient CAP tx for patients with no comorbidities?
Amoxicillin high-dose 1 g TID (think Penicillin allergies: seizures)

or

Doxycycline (photosensitivity, children <8, pregnancy, breastfeeding

or

Macrolide (azithromycin or clarithromycin) if local pneumococcal resistance is < 25% (DDI with lovastatin and simvastatin strong CYP3A4 inhib, QT prolongation, caution with CVD
281
What is the recommended empiric regimen for Outpatient CAP tx for pts with Comorbidities?
Beta-lactam + Macrolide or Doxycycline:
*Amoxicillin/clavulanate or Cephalosporin (cefpodoxime, cefdinir, cefuroxime) plus
*Macrolide or Doxycycline

Respiratory quinolone monotherapy:
*Moxifloxacin
*Gemifloxacin
or
*Levofloxacin

** Quinolone think tendon inflammation and/or rupture, Peripheral neuropathy, Seizures, Caution in pts with CNS disorder or drugs that cause seizures, QT prolongation (highest with Moxifloxacin), Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia, Psychiatric disturbances, Avoid in children and preg / breastfeeding, Photosensitivity

(My Good Lung)
282
What is the choose 1 antibiotic to cover Pseudomonas and MSSA for HAP/VAP (low risk for MRSA or MDR pathogens)?
Cefepime
Piperacillin/tazobactam
283
What is choose 2 antibiotics, one for MRSA and one for Pseudomonas for HAP/VAP (risk for MRSA (positive nasal swab) but low risk for MDR pathogens)?
Cefepime + Vancomycin
Meropenem + Linezolid
284
What is choose 3 antibiotics, one for MRSA and two for Pseudomonas for HAP/VAP (risk for both MRSA and MDR pathogens (IV antibiotics within 90 days)?
Pipercillin/tazobactam + Ciprofloxacin + Vancomycin
Cefepime + Gentamicin + Linezolid
285
List the antibiotics of choice for HAP/VAP for Pseudomonas?
*Do not use two beta-lactams together
Pipercillin/Tazobactam
Cefepime, ceftazidime or ceftolozane/tazobactam
Levofloxacin or ciprofloxacin
Imipenem/cilastatin or meropenem
Tobramycin, gentamicin or amikacin (use in combo with another antipseudomonal drug)
Colistimethate or polymixin B (use in combo with another antipsuedomonal drug)
286
List the antiboitcs of choice for HAP/VAP tx for MRSA?
Vancomycin
OR
Linezolid
287
How do you monitor infection for TB?
Sputum sample (for culture)
Symptoms
Chest X-ray (are lungs clear or clearing up?)
288
What are important drug-related key points for All RIPE drugs?
Increase LFTs
Increase total bilirubin - monitor
289
What is key points for Rifampin?
Orange bodily secretions
Strong CYP450 Inducer ( can use Rifabutin if unacceptable DDIs)
Flu-like sx
290
What are key points for Isoniazide (INH)?
Peripheral neuropathy - give with pyridoxine 25-50 mg PO daily
Monitor for symptoms of DILE
291
What are key points for Rifampin and INH?
Risk for hemolytic anemia (identified by a positive Coombs test)
292
What are key points for Pyrazinamide?
Increase Uric acid - DO NOT use with acute GOUT
293
What are key points for Ethambutol?
Visual damage (requires baseline and monthly vision exams)
Confusion/hallucinations
294
What is the recommendations for the 1rst episode Non-severe or Severe for C. Diff?
Vancomycin 125 mg PO QID x 10 days
or
Fidaxomicin 200 mg PO BID x 10 days
or
Metronidazole 500 mg PO TID x 10 days if non-severe episode ( WBC </= 15,000 and SCr <1.5)
295
What are the recommendations for the 2nd episode 1rst recurrence of C. Diff?
Any can be used:
Vancomycin 125 mg PO QID x 10 days
Fidaxomicin 200 mg PO BID x 10 days
Vancomycin tapered and pulsed regimen:
*125 mg PO QID x 10 days, BID x 1 week, daily x 1 week, then 125 mg every 2-3 days for 2-8 weeks
296
What are the recommendations for subsequent episodes for C. diff?
Vancomycin tapered and pulsed regimen
or
Vancomycin 125 mg PO QID x 10 days, then rifaximin 400 mg TID x 20 days
or
Fidaxomicin 200 mg PO BID x 10 days
or
Fecal micorbiota transplant
297
What is the newest FDA approved prevention for C. Diff?
Bezlotoxumab:
prevention of recurrent C diff for high risk pt (age >/= 65, immunocompromised, severe presentation and/or 2nd episode w/in past 6 months)

MUST use in combination w/ antibiotic against C. Diff (Fidaxomicin or Vancomycin)

CAUTION in HF
298
What are the common symptoms of Chlamydia?
genital discharge or no sx
299
What are the common symptoms of Gonorrhea?
genital discharge or no sx
300
What are the common symptoms of Syphilis?
Painless
Smooth genital sores (chancre)

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