OMA C8

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1
Minimum all engine turn altitude
400'
2
Minimum RFFS for Dest and Dep. Rules for downgrade
6. Can be downgraded to 4 if notified by NOTAM, but only valid for 72h.
Can by downgraded by one, if low intensity traffic. Must seek an approval, and listed in company notam etc
3
Minimum RFFS for alternate
4
4
Restrictions for operating over raised arresting gear
- speed must be below 60kts
- no use of max reverse
5
When does the planning phase end
AC moving under own power
6
What is the definition of airborne
Takeoff power set to touchdown
7
What are the destination weather requirements
No weather requirements, but below IAC minima, two alternates will be required
8
How do you figure out number of alternates based on your expected landing weight ?
- LW exceeds max LW for the most favorable runway in still air: 2 alternates needed
- LW exceeds runway most likely to be assigned (but does not exceed still air): 1 alternate
- LW does not exceed any of these, no alternate needed due to LW
9
What is the radius for takeoff alternate selection
1 hour SE cruise speed = 375 nm
10
What kind of approach can you perform if you are overweight (scenario single engine return)
Auto land is not possible above MLW.
Highest you can go is Cat II manual landing
11
For non-ETOPS what is the farthest you can be from an adequate aerodrome
60 minutes cruise speed = 408nm ( reason to check if LYR is open)
12
What is an adequate aerodrome
An aerodrome flight operations considers to be satisfactory
- performance, availability, RFFS, etc
13
What is a weather permissible airport
An adequate aerodrome where the weather and runway conditions will be acceptable for the intended time of use
14
What are the weather requirements for an adequate aerodrome in regards to non ETOPS 1 hour
No requirements !
15
For planning purposes, can you plan with only RNP approaches
- a conventional approach must be available at destination OR alternate
- if alternate is not required, you can plan with rnp at destination
16
When is RAIM check required
-When you plan with a RNP approach
-you intend to fly an RNP approach with RNP <0.3
17
Who is required to perform the RAIM check
Pilots if the RNP is ≥ 0.3
OW if the RNP is <3
18
What is the minimum fuel required

A. At the gate
B. Entering the runway
A. Taxi + trip + contingency + alternate + final reserve

B. Trip + alternate + final reserve ( can burn contingency and taxi fuel)
19
What is the minimum contingency fuel
Using the "Basic with variations" fuel scheme:
Higher of A or B, with an ERA available.

A. 3% trip fuel OR 20 minutes at trip fuel consumption
B. 5 minutes destination holding (1,500')

If no ERA, you can use the basic fuel scheme: 5% CF
20
Will trip fuel include the entire STAR?
Not the point merge part of the STAR
21
What are required to plan without destination alternate
All 4 must be valid:
1. 2 separate runways with separate approach aids, one won't block the other
2. Flight time max 6h, or 6h from DP (max 4 hours for in flight replanning)
3. Ceiling ≥ 2,000' (or circling+500' if greater), visibility ≥ 5,000m
4. 15 minute holding fuel at destination added (fuel flow at 1,500')
22
What uses standard weights and actual weights ?
Standard: crew and passengers
Actual: everything else (fuel, bags, cargo, oil etc)
23
What is the max total LMC adjustment
500kg (unlimited for fuel)
24
What are the weights used in LMC for pax, cargo, and bags
Pax 100kg, bag 15kg, cargo actual
25
What must you do after completing a LMC
Leave signed copy of adjusted load sheet at dep station
26
What is not allowed during refueling
- connect/disconnect GPU
- use of ignition
- operating the RADAR or lights
- abnormally hot brakes
- HF radio
27
Can you start/stop APU during fueling
Yes, as long as it was shut down normally
28
What is required for fueling with pax onboard
1. Alert cabin crew, seat belts off
2. Fueling supervision established
3. One pilot on flight deck
4. Two exits available for leaving the aircraft. Either a jet bridge or stairs at the main door, and one of the rear doors be free to use slide (not blocked)
29
Max number of UMNR in a flight. Any exceptions?
- 8
- might be reduced due to PWD + UMNR cannot exceed 8

The max number may be adjusted by commander after taking all factors into account
30
Who is responsible for UMNR and PWDs being handed over to competent personnel at the destination
The SCC
31
Max amount of DEPU
4 (their children not included)
32
What are three acceptable ways to perform a pre takeoff check
1. Mental review of conditions and/or treatment
2. Check of a representative surface
3. Check of wings
33
What shall be written in the tech log after performing a local deice treatment
Nothing

34
What must be done before departure if a preventive treatment has been done?
Should it be entered into the tech log?
- a tactile check is required
- Yes. ATL entry required
35
What's the main difference between RNAV (such as RNAV5), and RNP ?
RNP requires monitoring and alerting onboard
36
What is the terrain clearance on an MSA
1000' no matter the elevation
37
For GPWS avoidance, which rate of descent should be avoided
Avoid descending in excess of 2000fpm within 2000 feet of MOCA/MORA
38
Can you disregard a GPWS pull up?
With terrain clearly visible in daylight, you can exit the envelope instead of performing the pull up maneuver
39
What's the difference between mayday fuel and minimum fuel calls to ATC
Mayday fuel: you are expecting to land below final reserve

Minimum fuel: you are committed to an airport, and any additional delay will make you land below final reserve

40
What is the minimum runway width on a partially cleared runway.
What is the max depth of contaminants on the uncleared portion. Any other restrictions ?
30m (same as narrow runway)

30cm. No frozen contaminants, edge lights must be visible
41
What wind shear precautions are recommended for takeoff in OMA
Use max length

Use full thrust

Use a runway with crosswind instead of a possible loss of headwind
42
Can you disregard wind shear alerts
Reactive : no

Predictive: possible if taken precautions and paying utmost care

43
What is the OMA restriction for strong winds
At what wind speed are ground operations usually impaired
Operations should be suspended in excess of 60kts

Over 50kts ground handling is usually suspended
44
Recommendations for volcanic ash encounter
Descending 180 degree turn

Increase bleed demand

Restart stopped engines immediately
45
Min RVR/VIS for operation in sand
1000m
46
What are the recommendations if blowing a tyre on takeoff
- do not reject
- leave the gear out for 5 minutes
- divert or return due to possibility of secondary damage
- avoid overweight landing
47
What are the emergency calls for start and end of emergency descent
" emergency descent, emergency descent"

"Descent complete, descent complete "
48
What is the emergency call for calling the SCC to the flight deck
"Senior report to flight deck" (or 3 chimes)
49
What is the evacuation command. And the command to stand down
Evacuate evacuate, open seatbelt, get out. (Don't forget evac command signal).

Cabin crew and passengers, remain seated
50
Call 2 minutes and 1 minutes before landing
Attention crew, 2 minutes to landing

Bend down, stay down

51
For system resets, what is the recommended time for:

Resetting cockpit controls
Resetting CBs
3 seconds off

5 seconds pulled
52
What should the max speed during taxi before cabin ready
10 kts
53
When is RVR required for takeoff and landing
Vis below 800m
54
When is LP required to perform takeoff in reduced visibility
RVR <550
55
What is the minimum RVR for takeoff possible
125m
56
Cat III

What is the lowest RVR per segment for
1. Cat III No DH ( cat 3 dual)
2. Cat III with DH ( cat 3 single)
3. Cat III contaminated runway
1. 75m / 75 / 75
2. 175m / 75 / 75
3. 175m / 125/ 75 (DH ≥ 50)
57
Minimum RVR for CAT II

1. Cat II autoland
2. SA Cat II
3. Cat II Manual landing
1. 300m
2. 350m
3. 300m
58
Can you perform a cat 2 manual approach on a SA Cat2?
No
59
What are the wind limitations for autoland ?
OEI?
Does it also apply for a CAT II manual?
Generally 30/20/10 (head/cross/tail)
Some tail number variations

15 cross OEI

Yes

60
When do runway lights turn

1. Centerline : white&red

2. Centerline: all red
3. Edge: yellow
1. 900m from end

2. 300m from end

3. last 600m or 1/3 rwy
61
Minimum RVR for visual approach
800m
62
When can you not use Visibility conversion
1. takeoff
2. planning
3. minimums below 800
4. R/V behind minima on plate
63
What is a steep approach
4.5 degrees or more
64
Can you start an approach if RVR is less than minima
Yea, but only down to 1000' (or final approach segment if MDA/DA is above 1000'), then go around unless it has not improved
65
What can be done if the visibility is reduced below minima below 1000'
You can continue to minima
66
What are the repair limit times for categories of MEL
A,B,C,D
A: specified in MEL
B: 3 days
C: 10 days
D: 120 days

Excluding day or discovery
67
When is the MEL applicable for a new error
Until commencement of flight = moving under own power

68
How many passengers can you bring on a non-commercial flights?

Are there any exceptions ?
What requirements are there for the crew?
5 pax

NPFO can approve up to 19

CDR needs to insure all safety related tasks etc performed by CC is done
69
The 6 tasks of preflight inspection
1. Exterior inspection
2. Preflight emergency equipment check
3. check ATL
4. Fueling documentation
5. Departure check (ground crew)
6. External surface check, possibly followed by contamination check (more to do with long-haul)
70
Altimeter Limits

1. PFD vs aerodrome elevation
2. PFD vs PFD
3. PFD vs standby (electronic and manual)
4. in flight RVSM
1. 75'
2. 20'
3. ISIS: 100' Mechanical: 300'
4. 200' between PFDs
71
What is required to continue beyond DP in rcf
- trip fuel to dest1
- 5% cont fuel to dest 1
- altn fuel or 15 min
- final reserve
72
What to check if struck by lightning
- ias readings
- headings
- cb panels
- radios and avionics
73
Controlled rest requirements
- Max 45 minutes
- other pilot on headset
- audible alarm @45min
- alarm every 15min for not testing pilot, or SCC coordination
- 20 minutes after completion before handling controls back
- must be finished at least 30 min before tod
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