Nutrition Exam 3 (8,9,10)

Fat that accumulates outside of adipose tissue is called "________."
a. dual fat
b. subcutaneous fat
c. ectopic fat
d. visceral fat
e. waist fat

How is binge eating different from bulimia nervosa?
a. Binge-eaters are depressed; bulimics enjoy good mental health.
b. Binge-eaters rarely purge; bulimics almost always purge.
c. Binge-eaters eat more during a binge session than do bulimics.
d. Binge-eaters follow stricter diets than do bulimics.
e. Binge-eaters are more normal weight than are bulimics.

Imagine an adult who loses 20 pounds of excess body weight through a starvation diet. About how much of this weight loss is lean tissue?
a. 2 lb
b. 4 lb
c. 5 lb
d. 10 lb
e. 15 lb

Imagine that Tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and is nonambulatory for 8 weeks. What term describes the increase in Tom's energy expenditures?
a. febrile hyperthermia
b. physical hyperthermia
c. specific thermogenesis
d. adaptive thermogenesis
e. stress hyperthermia

In general, woman with a waist circumference greater than ________ inches and men with a waist circumference of greater than ________ inches have a high risk of central-obesity-related health problems.
a. 24; 32
b. 27; 38
c. 35; 40
d. 38; 27
e. 40; 35

The percentage of fat per pound of weight gained over time is ________.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. 75%

To assess body composition and central obesity, health-care professionals most often use BMI and ________.
a. age and height
b. essential body fat
c. hydrodensitometry
d. waist circumference
e. adaptive thermogenesis efficiency

What is the approximate body mass index of a woman who is 5 ft 5 in. and 215 lb?
a. 21
b. 26
c. 31
d. 36
e. 40

Which energy-yielding nutrient is the most satiating?
a. water
b. fat
c. carbohydrate
d. alcohol
e. protein

Which of the following can be used to gauge the amount of a person's abdominal fat or central obesity?
a. BMI
b. height
c. age
d. waist circumference
e. cholesterol levels

Which of the following describes thermogenesis?
a. a fat-synthesizing hormone
b. a fat-metabolizing enzyme
c. the generation of water
d. the generation of heat
e. a release of oxygen, similar to oxygenation

Which of the following factors lowers the BMR?
a. aging
b. fever
c. smoking
d. caffeine
e. cold temperatures

Which of the following factors raises the BMR?
a. fasting
b. obesity
c. sleep
d. growth
e. malnutrition

Which of the following is a health result of losing excess body weight?
a. It begins atherosclerosis.
b. It lowers HDL cholesterol.
c. It increases insulin resistance.
d. It raises the number of immune cells in adipose tissue.
e. It lowers blood pressure.

Which of the following represents the BMI of a person classified as overweight?
a. 15
b. 18.5
c. 22
d. 27
e. 34

A graph showing the relationship between mortality and body mass index is shaped like the a/n ________.
a. J
b. S
c. backslash
d. inverted U
e. forward slash

A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed ________ inches.
a. 26
b. 29
c. 35
d. 42
e. 55

A person with a body mass index less than 18.5 has which classification?
a. underweight
b. overweight
c. obesity
d. malnutrition
e. starvation

Among the following, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger?
a. biscuits
b. chocolate
c. carrots
d. french fries
e. potato chips

An agent that causes vomiting is a/n ________.
a. dysmorphic
b. steroid
c. emetic
d. cathartic
e. laxative

An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called ________.
a. body mass index
b. height-to-weight index
c. ideal body weight index
d. desirable body weight index
e. BMR

Body fat content for normal-weight men 20-39 years of age should be ________.
a. 5-10%
b. 18-21%
c. 22-30%
d. 32-40%
e. 41-47%

The energy needed to maintain life when a body is at complete digestive, physical, and emotional rest is called "________."
a. body composition
b. thermogenesis
c. basal metabolism
d. resting heart rate
e. energy expenditure

Imagine that an adult consumes 500 excess kcalories each day for 2 weeks. About how much weight would that person gain?
a. 0.5 lb
b. 2 lb
c. 3 lb
d. 4 lb
e. 8 lb

Imagine that, over time, an adult gains an extra 20 pounds of body weight. About how much of this weight gain is fat?
a. 5 lb
b. 10 lb
c. 12.5 lb
d. 15 lb
e. 18.5 lb

Obesity is second only to ________ in causing premature deaths.
a. motor vehicle accidents
b. tobacco
c. underweight
d. suicide
e. alcohol

Over time, the composition of weight gained or lost typically is ________ fat and ________ lean.
a. 10%; 90%
b. 20%; 80%
c. 35%; 65%
d. 50%; 50%
e. 75%; 25%

Quiet metabolic activities account for about ________ of the average person's daily energy expenditures.
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50% or more

Research shows high susceptibility to health problems when excess body fat is distributed around the ________.
a. neck
b. abdomen
c. hips and thighs
d. arms and shoulders
e. lower legs and feet

Research shows less susceptibility to health problems when excess body fat is distributed around the ________.
a. stomach
b. arms and chest
c. hips and thighs
d. face and neck
e. shoulders

Research shows that ________ of women have suffered from anorexia nervosa at some point in their lives.
a. less than 1%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
e. 10%

Research shows that excess body fat distributed primarily around the abdomen ________.
a. is associated with increased mortality for both sexes
b. is less common in women past menopause
c. lowers the risk for diabetes
d. is related directly to exercise
e. is related to heart disease risk but not cancer

Running at 9 mph expends 0.103 kcalories per pound per minute. About how many kcalories will a 120-pound woman expend during a 30-minute run?
a. 13
b. 309
c. 370
d. 730
e. 903

Satiety determines ________.
a. what kinds of foods are consumed at meals
b. how long it takes digestion to begin
c. protein versus carbohydrate intake
d. how much food is consumed during a meal
e. how much time passes between meals

Signs of illness, diminished work capacity, and poor reproductive function become apparent when the BMI is below
________.
a. 12
b. 14
c. 17
d. 18.5
e. 20

The amount of energy that the human body derives from foods is known as the ________.
a. physiological fuel value
b. basal metabolism
c. bomb calorimetry value
d. food combustion
e. psychological fuel value

The body minus its fat is called "________."
a. bone mass
b. lean body mass
c. body water percentage
d. organ mass
e. body composition

The generation of heat is ________.
a. composition
b. thermogenesis
c. basal metabolism
d. resting heart rate
e. energy expenditure

The integrated response to the sight, smell, thought, or taste of food that initiates or delays eating is called "________."
a. hunger
b. appetite
c. digestion
d. satiety
e. satiation

The percentage of fat per pound of weight lost via starvation is ________.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. 75%

The primary site in the brain where chemical messengers associated with hunger originate and act is the ________.
a. pituitary gland
b. frontal lobe
c. cerebellum
d. thalamus
e. hypothalamus

The proportions of muscle, bone, fat, and other tissue that make up a person's total body weight is the ________.
a. body composition
b. body fat percentage
c. basal metabolism
d. body mass index
e. bomb calorimetry

The response to the thought of a favorite food is called ________.
a. hunger
b. appetite
c. satiety
d. satiation
e. starvation

The thermic effect of food accounts for ________ of the average person's energy expenditure each day.
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50% or more

Though it has limitations, a basic rule of energy balance states that 1 pound of fat is stored for each ________ kcalories eaten in excess.
a. 500
b. 1500
c. 2500
d. 3500
e. 5000

What characterizes the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa?
a. Binge eating usually occurs during the daytime as a reward for something done well.
b. Binge eating often involves nutritious foods in overabundance.
c. Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting.
d. A binge-eating episode is usually completed within 20 minutes.
e. Young women are particularly likely to have "binge buddies" with whom they binge.

What hormone becomes active in the stomach and causes satiation?
a. gastrin
b. cholecystokinin
c. pepsin
d. adipokines
e. neuropeptide Y

What is the approximate number of kcalories in 1 pound of body fat?
a. 35
b. 70
c. 350
d. 7000
e. 3500

What is the effect of environmental temperature on BMR?
a. Cold temperatures raise BMR.
b. Hot temperatures lower BMR.
c. Environmental temperature has no effect on BMR.
d. Cold temperatures lower BMR.
e. Both hot and cold temperatures lower BMR.

What is the first treatment objective when treating a patient with anorexia nervosa?
a. decrease fat intake
b. eat foods with a lower energy density at first
c. eat foods with higher fiber content
d. decrease physical activity
e. stop weight loss

What is the physiological fuel value?
a. The amount of oxygen consumed as energy is released.
b. The scientific measure of kcalories a food provides.
c. The feeling of satisfaction during or after a mean.
d. The energy needed to maintain life when the body is at complete rest.
e. The number of kcalories the body derives from a food.

What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight women 20-39 years of age?
a. 5-10%
b. 18-22%
c. 23-26%
d. 28-32%
e. 31-34%

What is the reason for excluding the value for adaptive thermogenesis when calculating energy requirements?
a. It is expensive to measure.
b. It is too variable to measure.
c. The value is too low to be utilized in calculations.
d. The value is highly influenced by the dietary ratio of protein, fat, and carbohydrate.
e. All of these are correct.

What term refers to the combination of risk factors—elevated fasting blood glucose, hypertension, abnormal blood lipids, and abdominal obesity—that greatly increase a person's risk of developing heart disease?
a. immunological disease
b. ectopic cluster syndrome
c. progressive inflammatory disease
d. normal-weight obesity syndrome
e. metabolic syndrome

Which energy-yielding nutrient is considered the most satiating?
a. carbohydrates
b. alcohol
c. protein
d. fiber
e. fats

Which food component has the lowest thermic effect?
a. alcohol
b. fat
c. protein
d. carbohydrate
e. minerals

Which method to assess body fat involves a chamber of computerized sensors, which is commonly called the "bod pod"?
a. bioelectrical impedance
b. hydrodensitometry
c. air-displacement plethysmography
d. skinfold measures
e. DXA scan

Which method to assess body fat weighs a person on land and then again while submerged in water?
a. skinfold measures
b. hydrodensitometry
c. DXA scan
d. air-displacement plethysmography
e. bioelectrical impedance

Which of the following activities expends the fewest kcalories per pound (or kilogram) per minute?
a. vacuuming
b. golfing
c. studying
d. Wii boxing
e. gardening

Which of the following describes a cathartic?
a. strong laxative
b. drug that induces vomiting
c. device to measure skinfold thickness
d. device to measure the energy of foods
e. drug that reduces nausea

Which of the following has the most significant influence on the body's metabolic rate?
a. amount of fat tissue
b. age
c. environmental temperature
d. height
e. amount of lean body tissue

Which of the following is a cognitive influence on eating?
a. the sight of food
b. social influences
c. GI hormones
d. endorphins
e. the smell of food

Which of the following is a metabolic consequence of obesity that precedes type 2 diabetes?
a. subcutaneous fat
b. insulin resistance
c. thyroid insufficiency
d. hypothalamic impedance
e. islet cell pathology

Which of the following is an immunological response to cellular injury characterized by an increase in white blood cells?
a. cancer
b. inflammation
c. obesity
d. adiposity
e. dysmorphia

Which of the following is not a metabolic activity?
a. inhaling and exhaling air
b. making new red blood cells via bone marrow
c. chewing food
d. filtering wastes through the kidneys
e. the heart beating 100,000 times each day

Which of the following parameters are essential to compute a woman's BMR?
a. body fat, height, and age
b. body weight, height, and age
c. physical activity level, body weight, and height
d. energy intake, physical activity level, and body weight
e. physical activity and age

Which of the following represents the BMI of a person classified as obese?
a. 15
b. 18.5
c. 22
d. 27
e. 34

Which of the following represents the most common eating disorder among men and women of any age?
a. binge-eating disorder
b. athlete triad
c. bulimia nervosa
d. carbohydrate addiction
e. anorexia nervosa

Which of the following statements describes the thermic effect of foods (TEF)?
a. TEF is estimated at 25% of energy intake.
b. TEF plus an increase in the metabolic rate due to overeating is called diet-induced thermogenesis (DIT).
c. A meal eaten all at once has a lower TEF than one spread out over hours.
d. TEF is higher for high-fat foods than for high-carbohydrate foods.
e. TEF must be considered when estimating energy expenditure because its contribution to total energy output is substantial.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a valid recommendation for accepting a healthy body weight?
a. Seek the advice of friends and the fashion industry for criteria regarding appearance and body size.
b. Use positive, nonjudgmental descriptions of your body.
c. Accept positive comments from others.
d. Seek professional counseling to make gains in self-esteem beyond a focus on weight.
e. Never restrict food intake below the minimum levels that meet nutrient needs.

Which of these is a feature of the body mass index?
a. It correlates with disease risks.
b. It decreases by 1 unit for every 20 years of life.
c. It provides an estimate of the total amount fat level of the body.
d. It is defined as the person's height divided by the square of the weight.
e. It is defined as the estimates amounts and percentage of muscle mass in the body.

Which part of the brain is the primary center for appetite control?
a. medulla
b. cerebral cortex
c. cerebellum
d. hippocampus
e. hypothalamus

Which person would need more body fat than the others?
a. a professional ballet dancer
b. a pregnant woman
c. a high school basketball player
d. a ranch hand in Phoenix, Arizona
e. a bodybuilder

Which statement accurately describes fat distribution?
a. Subcutaneous fat is called "central obesity."
b. Central obesity does not contribute to heart disease, cancers, and diabetes.
c. Subcutaneous fat contributes to heart disease, cancers, and diabetes.
d. Visceral fat is most common in women.
e. Body fat around the hips and thighs is most common in women during their reproductive years.

Which statement accurately describes the energy measurement of foods?
a. Bomb calorimetry provides precise amounts of energy a person derives from the foods consumed..
b. A bomb calorimeter measures the amount of oxygen released when a food is oxidized.
c. The amount of carbon dioxide consumed gives an indirect measure of energy released.
d. In general, the fuel value of protein foods will exceed their energy value as measured by bomb calorimetry.
e. Bomb calorimetry typically overstates the physiological fuel value.

Which term describes the combination of disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis?
a. high stress tertiary disorder
b. female athlete triad
c. triathlete medical disorder
d. nonadaptable training syndrome
e. athletic hormonal disruption

Which term refers to a psychiatric disorder characterized by a preoccupation with building body mass?
a. bulimia
b. cathartic disordered eating
c. amenorrhea
d. orthorexia nervosa
e. muscle dysmorphia

Which term refers to a relatively new food practice that uses restrictive diets, ritualized eating patterns, and rigid food avoidance?
a. bulimia
b. cathartic disordered eating
c. amenorrhea
d. orthorexia nervosa
e. muscle dysmorphia

Which term refers to fat stored within the abdominal cavity in association with the internal abdominal organs?
a. visceral fat
b. subcutaneous fat
c. waist fat
d. dual fat
e. ectopic fat

Which term reflects the proportions of muscle, bone, fat, and other tissue that make up a person's total body weight?
a. metabolic syndrome
b. body weight distribution
c. body mass index
d. body composition
e. relative energy index

Why are overweight or obese women at higher risk for cancer of the female reproductive system?
a. Obese women are more sedentary, which promotes cancer development.
b. Adipose tissue stores carcinogens in the body.
c. Excess body fat produces more estrogen, which may promote the development of cancer.
d. Obese women eat more food; therefore, they are exposed to more naturally occurring carcinogens.
e. Obese women have impaired immune function, so their ability to deal with cancer-causing viruses is diminished.

You have just consumed a very large Thanksgiving meal, but still want a slice of pumpkin pie for dessert. What term best describes this state?
a. satiety
b. appetite
c. hunger
d. bulimia
e. depression

Leptin acts as a hormone, primarily in the ________.
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. intestines
d. hippocampus
e. hypothalamus

Studies report that the differences in the time obese and lean people spend lying, sitting, standing, and moving account for about ________ kcalories per day.
a. 150
b. 350
c. 550
d. 750
e. 1500

Which of the following statements accurately describes the "browning" of white fat cells?
a. Interestingly, physical activity stops the browning process.
b. After much study, researchers have found little connection between GI microbiota and the browning process.
c. Brown fat cells are more abundant than brite fat cells in adults.
d. White fat cells with brown fat cell characteristics are sometimes called "beige adipocytes."
e. White fat cells undergo browning when they take on the activity of coupled proteins.

A less-preferred term for clinically severe obesity is ________.
a. morbid obesity
b. metabolic syndrome
c. leptin-resistant obesity
d. psychological-resistant syndrome
e. Prader-Willi syndrome

A person is considered underweight until his BMI reaches ________.
a. 18.5
b. 20
c. 22.5
d. 25
e. 30

A reputable weight-loss program will provide customers with honest predictions of success and ________.
a. give testimonials from previous, successful users
b. will explain the associated risks
c. give statistics on weight cycling
d. will list the psychological benefits of weight loss
e. give testimonials from medical professionals

About how many sites in the human genome are associated with obesity and fat?
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100
d. 500
e. 1000

About how many U.S. adults are underweight?
a. 0.2%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 10%
e. 15%

According to the National Weight Control Registry, which of the following is NOT one of the behaviors most people who have maintained weight loss do regularly?
a. skip breakfast
b. engage in regular physical activity
c. eat a low-kilocalorie diet
d. limit screen time
e. monitor weight frequently

All the genetic information of a population at a given time is called ________.
a. genetic sequencing
b. epigenetics
c. the gene pool
d. the genome
e. genetic susceptibility

An eating plan that promises quick weight loss if an individual never eats any dairy products would be called ________.
a. yo-yo dieting
b. a fad diet
c. an elimination diet
d. a balanced diet
e. caloric deficit

For overweight adults, a reasonable weight loss is ________.
a. ½ pound per day
b. ½ to 2 pounds per week
c. ½ to 2 pounds per month
d. 1 pound per day
e. 10% of body weight per month

Ghrelin is secreted by cells in the ________.
a. stomach
b. pancreas
c. liver
d. hypothalamus
e. small intestine

Health care professionals suggest setting SMART goals to change one's eating behaviors. What does SMART stand for?
a. specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, time-based
b. specific, meaningful, analytic, relevant, technological
c. sensitive, minimal, accessible, reliable, time-bound
d. supportive, media-based, attainable, repeatable, tertiary
e. supportive, minimal, analytic, reliable, technological

Improvements in physical capabilities and quality of life begin with a ________ weight loss.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d .25%
e. 30%

In general, weight-loss diets need to provide a minimum of ________ kcalories per day for women.
a. 500
b. 800
c. 1200
d. 1600
e. 1800

In general, weight-loss diets need to provide at least ________ of kcalories per day for men.
a. 800
b. 1000
c. 1200
d. 1600
e. 2000

In leptin sensitivity, leptin levels are increased and ________.
a. leptin sensitivity is increased
b. leptin sensitivity is decreased
c. insulin sensitivity is increased
d. insulin sensitivity is decreased
e. adipocytes increase in number

In which procedure is 70 to 85% of the stomach removed and the rest stapled to create a vertical tube-shaped stomach with limited capacity?
a. gastric bypass
b. gastric banding
c. sleeve gastrectomy
d. liposuction
e. gastric aspiration

Jules burns 100 kcalories during her morning walk. How many additional kcalories is she likely to burn in the postexercise period?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 45
e. 60

Last year, an overweight woman was classified as "obese" based on her BMI. Since then, she has gained more weight and developed type 2 diabetes. She will be categorized as having "critically severe obesity" as soon as her BMI reaches ________.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 33
d. 35
e. 40

Meeting an activity goal of ________ steps a day is an excellent way to support a healthy BMI.
a. 2,500
b. 5000
c. 7500
d. 10,000
e. 15,000

Most fad diets ________.
a. produce long-lasting results
b. limit food choices, which reduces energy intake
c. are balanced and do not require a dietary supplement
d. support good health over the long term
e. embrace a variety of foods by proposing how to proportion energy nutrients

Newborn babies are poorly insulated and cannot shiver when exposed to cold temperatures. What type of adipose tissue helps infants generate heat when it is cold?
a. brown
b. white
c. ectopic
d. visceral
e. abdominal

Obesity has many causes and is a risk factor for many diseases; therefore, the best approach seems to be ________.
a. fasting
b. medicines
c. prevention
d. epigenetic counseling
e. a holistic one

Of the following, which is an example of a behavior-modification technique for weight loss?
a. Create a blog about your overeating habits to create a like-minded community.
b. Download an app to keep a record of your eating and exercise habits.
c. Create the "Clean Plate Club" at home and reward family members appropriately.
d. Eat with a buddy who will monitor your food intake.
e. Cook your own meals and eat alone to focus on your own habits.

Of the following, which provides an example of an obesogenic environment?
a. Celebrations often involve cake and alcoholic drinks.
b. Many companies provide employees with free memberships to local exercise facilities.
c. Airlines have increased the length of all seatbelts.
d. Advertisements for weight-loss products and gyms frequently run in January.
e. Some high-end designers refuse to sell clothing in plus sizes.

Of the following, which would be considered a fad diet?
a. eating only cold, green foods for one month
b. joining WW (formerly, Weight Watchers) and a gym
c. eating mostly a plant-rich diet
d. adding time and new activities to a current workout plan
e. limiting sweets to once per month

Over the past five decades, what proportion of the U.S. adult population is considered overweight or obese?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%
e. 90%

Plant-based foods such as fresh fruits, vegetables, legumes, and whole grains and vegetarian eating patterns may help with weight management in addition to ________.
a. improving symptoms of IBS
b. improving symptoms of gastrointestinal diseases
c. improving leptin and ghrelin
d. improving inflammation that accompanies obesity
e. all of these are correct

Savoring each bite also activates?
a. pleasure centers of the brain
b. ghrelin
c. white adipose tissue
d. brown adipose tissue
e. Prader-Willi syndrome

Some white fat cells can undergo a process known as browning as they take on characteristics of brown fat, most notably the activity of uncoupled proteins. What are these fat cells called?
a. visceral
b. ectopic
c. WAT
d. BAT
e. brite

Successful behavior changes depend in part on two cognitive skills. What are they?
a. problem solving and cognitive restructuring
b. using apps to support behavioral changes
c. including a plant-based diet
d. thermogenesis
e. effects of leptin on the hypothalamus

The influence of environmental factors, such as diet and physical activity, on gene expression is called "________."
a. genetic sequencing
b. epigenetics
c. the gene pool
d. the genome
e. genetic susceptibility

The National Weight Control Registry tracks over 10,000 individuals who have maintained a significant weight loss over time. Strategies of those who have been successful may differ in the details, but in general, most ________.
a. limit television to less than 10 hours a week
b. join a gym or a fitness center
c. consume a very-low-caloric diet
d. get pharmacological support
e. follow a diet that is energy-dense

The postexercise effect on one's metabolism may raise energy expenditure to a maximum of ________.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
e. 25%

The prescription drug orlistat acts by ________.
a. increasing metabolism
b. releasing ghrelin and leptin
c. inhibiting pancreatic lipase
d. regulating the utilization of norepinephrine
e. regulating brain serotonin receptors

The prescription drug phentermine acts by regulating ________.
a. blood insulin
b. norepinephrine
c. hormone-sensitive lipase
d. adipocyte lipoprotein lipase
e. leptin and insulin

The uncoupling proteins in adipose tissue ________.
a. increase the size of fat cells
b. reduce the number of fat cells
c. increase the number of fat cells
d. lower basal metabolism
e. increase the amount of energy released as heat

To maintain weight loss, one should aim to lose 5 to 10% of initial body weight in ________.
a. 6 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months
e. 1 year

To maximize the long-term success of a weight-reduction program, a person should ________.
a. strongly believe that he can successfully lose weight
b. realize that being "the overweight one" is an unchangeable part of his identity
c. consider a short-term smoking program
d. accept that little exercise is a part of his lifestyle and act accordingly
e. keep weight loss plans private matter to avoid embarrassment if they fail

To prevent weight gain and support weight loss, one should add ________ minutes of moderately intense physical activity each week.
a. 30-60
b. 60-90
c. 90-120
d. 120-200
e. 200-300

Trevor is an underweight long-distance runner. To achieve a healthy body weight to improve his performance, he must ________.
a. eat a high-kcalorie diet and exercise regularly
b. eat a high-kcalorie diet and reduce his exercise to minimal amounts
c. eat a high-protein diet plus exercise regularly
d. eliminate alcohol and exercise from his life
e. eat a high-protein, high-kcalorie diet and reduce his exercise to minimal amounts

Underweight people expend so much energy adapting to a higher food intake at first that about ________ extra kcalories may be needed to gain a pound a week.
a. 350
b. 500
c. 750
d. 900
e. 1200

Using large quantities of low-energy-density foods in a diet is sometimes referred to as "________."
a. calometrics
b. minimetrics
c. densification
d. volumetrics
e. substitution

Weight loss is recommended for people who are obese (BMI 30) and for those who are overweight (BMI 25 to 29.9) with which of the following obesity-related risk factors?
a. hypertension, sleep apnea, fatty liver
b. poor eyesight, poor hearing, IBS
c. Alzheimer's alcoholism, anorexia
d. hair loss, constipation, type 1 diabetes
e. none of these are correct.

Weight maintenance may require a person to expend a minimum of ________ kcalories in physical activity per week.
a. 500
b. 1250
c. 1500
d. 2500
e. 3500

What happens to leptin and ghrelin levels when someone is sleep-deprived?
a. Both leptin and ghrelin increase.
b. Both leptin and ghrelin decrease.
c. Leptin decreases while ghrelin increases
d. Leptin increases while ghrelin decreases.
e. No significant effects are observed.

What is a potential problem with using diet histories to gauge energy intake?
a. They focus primarily on past energy intakes and ignore current activity.
b. Diet histories do not factor into the energy balance equation.
c. Obese people tend to overestimate energy intake, while others tend to underestimate it.
d. Both normal-weight and obese people commonly misreport actual energy intakes.
e. Past diet histories are less useful given today's abundance of fast-food options.

What is Prader-Willi syndrome?
a. a genetic disorder resulting in obesity
b. altered receptor activity for ghrelin
c. fat accumulation in the liver of leptin-resistant patients
d. a genetic disorder characterized by loss of appetite
e. a failure to adapt to alternating periods of excess and inadequate energy intake

What is the minimum number of minutes per week of moderately intense physical activity to prevent weight gain
a. 50-100
b. 100-200
c. 200-300
d. 300-400
e. 400-500

When people give up cigarettes, they gain an average of ________ pounds in the first year.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 25
e. 30

Which enzyme participates in the development of obesity?
a. ghrelin
b. lipoprotein lipase
c. cholecystokinin
d. salivary amylase
e. protease

Which is true of nonprescription weight-loss products?
a. They must be approved by the FDA.
b. They must be tested for safety and effectiveness by the manufacturer.
c. They must list all active and nonactive ingredients on the label.
d. Most have proved to be effective.
e. Many have proved to be harmful.

Which of the following defines the body's set point?
a. a person's maximum healthy weight
b. a person's minimum healthy weight
c. point at which a person's weight plateaus before dropping again quickly
d. point at which all LPL activity ceases
e. point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight

Which of the following involves maintaining body mass in a healthy range by preventing gradual weight gains over time and losing weight if overweight?
a. yo-yo dieting
b. gene expression
c. behavioral modification
d. fad dieting
e. weight management

Which of the following involves the changing of antecedents, behaviors, and consequences?
a. spot reducing
b. yo-yo dieting
c. behavior modification
d. mindful eating
e. intuitive eating

Which of the following is a cosmetic weight-loss procedure?
a. Orlistat
b. Phentermine
c. liposuction
d. lipoprotein lipase
e. spot reducing

Which of the following is a protein produced by fat cells under the direction of the ob gene that decreases appetite and increases energy expenditure?
a. ghrelin
b. leptin
c. elastin
d. collagen
e. cholecystokinin

Which of the following is a protein that stimulates appetite and decreases energy expenditure?
a. leptin
b. elastin
c. ghrelin
d. cholecystokinin
e. collagen

Which of the following is a saline-filled silicone device in the stomach to limit food intake?
a. intragastric balloon
b. orlistat
c. spot reducing
d. liposuction
e. phentermine

Which of the following is related to "spot reducing" in exercise?
a. No exercise can target fat removal from any specific area of the body.
b. Upper body fat is mostly unaffected by exercising lower body.
c. Lower body fat in women is depleted at a faster rate.
d. Abdominal fat is released more readily with anaerobic exercise.
e. Muscles own fat cells that surround them.

Which of the following is true regarding environmental influences on weight?
a. People tend to eat less when socializing with others.
b. Keep high calorie snack foods on hand so they lose their appeal.
c. People who use media while eating tend to eat more and feel less full.
d. When offered a large assortment of foods, or several flavors of the same food, people tend to eat less.
e. The larger the serving container, the less we tend to eat.

Which of the following procedures is more cosmetic and has little effect on body weight?
a. liposuction
b. gastric banding
c. spot reducing
d. gastric bypass
e. sleeve gastrectomy

Which of the following reflects a SMART goal?
a. I want to live to see my grandchildren grow up.
b. I want to be at my healthiest weight by my next doctor's appointment.
c. I will eat only healthy foods.
d. I will eat a healthy breakfast and run 3 miles every day.
e. I will start running 2 miles every morning and then run a marathon next month.

Which of the following relates to body weight and proposes that the body tends to maintain a certain weight by means of its own internal controls?
a. homeostasis
b. obesogenic environment
c. epigenetics
d. set-point theory
e. yo-yo dieting

Which of the following removes triglycerides from the blood for storage in fat and muscle cells?
a. adipose lipase
b. lipoprotein synthetase
c. cellulite synthetase
d. lipoprotein lipase
e. glucagon

Which of the following statements about physical activity and weight loss is FALSE?
a. Strength and balance improve when exercise is part of a weight-loss program.
b. The greater the energy deficit created by exercise, the greater the fat loss.
c. Using discretionary kcalories will maximize weight loss.
d. Daily vigorous activities gradually develop more lean tissue.
e. Even with the same BMI, physically active people have less body fat than sedentary people.

Which of the following statements about physical activity is true?
a. The number of kcalories spent in an activity depends on body weight, intensity, and duration.
b. Physical activity increases the energy required to meet nutrient needs.
c. Physical activity cannot reduce abdominal fat without weight loss.
d. Being active increases hunger.
e. Physical activity does not affect metabolism.

Which of the following statements accurately describes fat cell development?
a. When energy out exceeds energy in, the number and size of fat cells decrease.
b. While fat cells grow and shrink in size, their number is fixed.
c. The number of fat cells grows substantially during early adulthood, as energy expenditure begins to decline.
d. Researchers have concluded there is no way to induce fat cell death.
e. An obese person has more and larger fat cells than does a healthy-weight person.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of prescription drugs to treat obesity?
a. Drug therapies should be considered for both cosmetic and health reasons.
b. Most experts believe obesity is not a disease, so drugs should not be prescribed.
c. Most currently available drugs are proven effective in both the short and long term.
d. Physicians may prescribe "off-label" drugs to take advantage of their modest weight-loss effects.
e. Although initially effective, most drugs have eventually raised the risk of cardiovascular disease to unacceptable levels.

Which of the following statements accurately describes weight gain and genetics?
a. Adopted children tend to have body weights more like their biological parents than their adoptive parents.
b. Exercise has little, if any, effect on the genetic influence on weight gain.
c. Most cases of obesity stem from a single gene.
d. Obese people can change their genome and influence their epigenome.
e. Fraternal twins are more likely to weigh the same than are identical twins.

Which of the following would NOT be part of a successful program of weight gain in an underweight individual?
a. eat energy-dense foods
b. drink energy-dense beverages
c. eat a large number of meals all day
d. engage in regular physical exercise
e. consume extra snacks.

Which statement about perceptions of obesity is FALSE?
a. Obese people often are judged more on their appearance than on their character.
b. Many people assume that every obese person can and should achieve slenderness.
c. Most weight-loss programs focus on willpower, hard work, and tending psychological issues.
d. In parts of society, overweight is embraced as a sign of health and beauty.
e. People are born and raised with various weight tendencies.

Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between the speed at which one eats and weight management?
a. People who eat slowly have greater energy intake.
b. Faster eating correlates with higher BMI.
c. Eating quickly stimulates the pleasure centers of the brain faster and leads to faster satiety.
d. Satiety hormones are blunted when meals are eaten more slowly.
e. Faster eating correlates with higher diet-induced thermogenesis.

Which technique uses a tube to empty the contents of the stomach after every meal?
a. liposuction
b. gastric aspiration
c. intragastric balloon
d. gastric bypass
e. sleeve gastrectomy

Which term means pertaining to the field of medicine that specializes in treating obesity?
a. gastric
b. bariatric
c. endoscopic
d. metabolic
e. ischemic

White fat cells with brown fat cell characteristics are called ________.
a. ectopic fat
b. visceral fat
c. brite adipocytes
d. extra adipocytes
e. large adipocytes

Why do fad diets appeal to so many Americans?
a. They are based on years of credible, but previously unpublished, research.
b. They ignore dietary recommendations and allow people to eat favorite foods freely.
c. They offer inexpensive, proven results.
d. They are paired with sophisticated testimonials from knowledgeable nutritionists.
e. They provide long-lasting results.

Why do fad diets typically produce weight loss, at least for a short time?
a. They suggest the correct amount macronutrients needed in the diet.
b. They prevent rapid rises and falls in blood glucose level.
c. They do not require kcalorie counting, so compliance is better.
d. They limit energy intake to about 1200 kcal/day.
e. They are enthusiastically followed by those trying to lose some weight.

Why is appetite suppressed after intense exercise?
a. Thirst overpowers the desire for food and water is satiating.
b. The elevated blood lactate level antagonizes ghrelin.
c. Glucose and fatty acids are abundant in the blood.
d. Exercise causes smell and taste to be suppressed for at least an hour.
e. Leptin secretion increases during workouts

Women readily develop lower body fat around the hips and thighs and men readily develop central body fat around the abdomen. This primarily is due to gender differences in ________.
a. set points.
b. the activity of lipoprotein synthetase .
c. blood insulin levels .
d. the activity of lipoprotein lipase.
e. patterns of physical activity.

Your friend Jody considers following a popular diet plan. She shows you the description of the plan in a magazine. Which of the following statements in the magazine would suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet?
a. "Lose up to 2 pounds per week!"
b. "This fat-busting plan jump starts your metabolism and allows you to target problem areas like hips and thighs."
c. "Keep fresh fruit or carrot sticks in the fridge at work so you won't be tempted to raid the vending machine for a snack."
d. "Starting an aerobic exercise plan may seem daunting, but you can start out with shorter, easier sessions and then build up to 3 or more hours a week."
e. "Improve your health with well-balanced meals and increased physical activity."

Your patient, Mr. Song, has a BMI of 43 and wants to begin taking drugs to lose weight. He has glaucoma, but is otherwise healthy. Which of the following should NOT be prescribed for Mr. Song?
a. olestra
b. orlistat
c. serotonin
d. phentermine
e. Belviq

A deficiency of which vitamin causes cheilosis, a condition in which the corners of the mouth become cracked and red?
a. vitamin C
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. vitamin B12
e. vitamin B6

Another name for folate is ________.
a. pyridoxamine
b. glutamic acid
c. pteroylglutamic acid
d. foliage
e. DFE

Atrophic gastritis is a chronic condition in which ________.
a. the stomach muscles shrink.
b. the stomach becomes inflamed.
c. the small intestine becomes inflamed.
d. various stretches of the GI tract become inflamed.
e. the gallbladder excretes too much bile into the small intestine

Intrinsic factor is required for absorption of which vitamin?
a. B6
b. thiamin
c. riboflavin
d. B12
e. niacin

Niacin was involved in a groundbreaking discovery that showed that ________.
a. diet inadequacies could cause disease
b. the B vitamins were involved in energy metabolism
c. tryptophan was a precursor of niacin
d. niacin was a water-soluble vitamin
e. dermatitis was a symptom of niacin deficiency

Of these foods, which is NOT a good source of folate?
a. milk
b. legumes
c. breakfast cereals
d. green, leafy vegetables
e. fruits

Of these foods, which is the best source of riboflavin per kcalorie?
a. tofu
b. eggs
c. strawberries
d. potatoes
e. clams

Of these foods, which is the best source of riboflavin?
a. tofu
b. liver
c. carrots
d. oranges
e. potatoes

Of these foods, which is the best source of thiamin?
a. sunflower seeds
b. tuna
c. eggs
d. soy milk
e. cheddar cheese

Of these foods, which is the best source of vitamin B6?
a. milk
b. carrots
c. tofu
d. cheddar cheese
e. banana

Of these foods, which one is the best source of folate per kcalorie?
a. strawberries
b. asparagus
c. fortified cornflakes
d. eggs
e. peanut butter

The first major report of vitamin B6 toxicity appeared in the ________.
a. early 1800s
b. early 1970s
c. early 1980s
d. early 1990s
e. early 2000s

What organ in the body contains more vitamin C than any other organ?
a. lungs
b. spleen
c. adrenal glands
d. pituitary gland
e. kidneys

Which federal agency regulates dietary supplements?
a. U.S. Department of Agriculture
b. U.S. Public Health Service
c. Centers for Disease Control
d. Food and Drug Administration
e. Federal Trade Commission

Which food source is the greatest contributor of riboflavin for most Americans?
a. pork
b. Broccoli
c. milk
d. eggs
e. pinto beans

Which is the richest food source of thiamin?
a. pork
b. broccoli
c. milk
d. eggs
e. pinto beans

Which of the following is a function of vitamin C?
a. It helps form collagen.
b. It is involved in energy metabolism.
c. It helps rid the body of antioxidants.
d. It helps rid the body of excess iron.
e. It aids in the digestion of fat.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of folate deficiency?
a. impaired red blood cell replacement
b. impaired protein synthesis
c. impaired GI tract cell turnover
d. impaired B12 absorption

A deficiency of riboflavin can cause a disease known as ________.
a. pernicious anemia
b. pellagra
c. riboflavinosis
d. beriberi
e. ariboflavinosis

About what percentage of U.S. adults take a multivitamin-mineral supplement regularly?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 50
d. 60
e. 65

B vitamins have a major role in _______.
a. energy metabolism
b. antibody stabilization
c. collagen formation
d. anticoagulation
e. antioxidation

Because of the way in which the body handles folate, a folate deficiency can occur if ________.
a. the GI tract is injured
b. intrinsic factor is lacking
c. the pancreas is injured
d. part of the stomach has been removed
e. anemia exists.

From what does vitamin C protects tissues?
a. lean body mass loss
b. aches and pains
c. water loss from tissues
d. oxidative stress of free radicals
e. neurological stress

From which amino acid can choline be made?
a. leucine
b. tryptophan
c. hydroxyproline
d. methionine
e. hydroxylysine

High intakes of folate can mask a deficiency of which nutrient?
a. iron
b. vitamin A
c. thiamin
d. potassium
e. vitamin B12

How long can it take for the symptoms of vitamin B12 symptoms to develop, if a person, say a new vegetarian, was to suddenly stop eating animal products?
a. 1 week
b. 1 month
c. several months
d. 1 year
e. several years

How much more available to the body is synthetic folate than naturally occurring folate?
a. 0.7 times
b. 1.2 times
c. 1.5 times
d. 1.7 times
e. 2.5 times

Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor are need for the absorption of which vitamin?
a. vitamin c
b. vitamin b6
c. vitamin b12
d. pantothenic acid
e. nicotinic acid

Milk is sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers, instead of clear glass bottles, to prevent which of the following from being destroyed by UV light?
a .amino acids.
b. vitamin A.
c. thiamin
d. riboflavin
e. vitamin C

Of these foods, which has the greatest vitamin B12 bioavailability?
a. milk
b. eggs
c. meat
d. poultry
e. spirulina (sea algae)

Of these foods, which is the best source of niacin?
a. egg white
b. chicken breast
c. broccoli
d. oranges
e. strawberries

One difference between water-soluble vitamins and fat-soluble vitamins is that ________.
a. fat-soluble vitamins outnumber water-soluble vitamins.
b. in large amounts, water-soluble vitamins can be more toxic than fat-soluble vitamins
c. fat-soluble vitamins are easier for the body to excrete
d. water-soluble vitamins need to be consumed more frequently than fat-soluble vitamins
e. fat-soluble vitamins need to be consumed more frequently than water-soluble vitamins

Riboflavin is similar to thiamin in that both ________.
a. are found in abundant amounts in pork.
b. serve as coenzymes in energy metabolism.
c. are easily destroyed by heat.
d. are easily destroyed by ultraviolet light.
e. can be toxic when consumed in high amounts.

Scurvy, the deficiency disease of vitamin C, is ________.
a. a condition that was first recognized in mountain climbers
b. a condition whose treatment wasn't discovered until the early 1900s
c. a condition whose symptoms start to appear within 3 days of the deficiency in the diet
d. usually cured within 5 days of beginning treatment with 100 milligrams of vitamin C daily
e. a particular problem for alcoholics

Substances like vitamin C that significantly decrease the adverse effects of free radicals on normal physiological functions are known as ________.
a. anti-inflammatories
b. antioxidants
c. cofactor
d. coenzymes
e. micronutrients

The bioavailability of vitamins in food ________.
a. refers to the number of neutrons in the cells of vitamins.
b. depends on many factors, such as how the food was prepared
c. is easy to determine
d. is the ratio of vitamin intake to calorie intake.
e. refers to a vitamin's molecular structure.

The coenzyme form of niacin is central to the metabolism of ________.
a. amino acids.
b. glucose
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin C
e. lactose

The RDA for niacin is ________.
a. expressed in milligrams of niacin equivalents
b. expressed in milligrams of niacin estimates
c. higher for women than for men
d. the same for men and women
e. difficult to meet unless the diet includes meat and other sources of the amino acid tryptophan

The RDA for thiamin is ________.
a. higher for women than for men
b. the same for men and women
c. measured in micrograms
d. sometimes hard to meet because thiamin is not found in many foods
e. only slightly higher for men than for women

The RDA for vitamin C ________.
a. is the same for men and women
b. can be met in one serving of many fruits and vegetables
c. is 60 milligrams a day for women
d. is based on iron requirements
e. is slightly lower for cigarette smokers

The risk of thiamin deficiency is doubled in ________.
a. cigarette smokers
b. alcoholics
c. infants
d. pregnant women
e. adults over 65 years old

The synthesis of collagen requires vitamin C to work with what other nutrient?
a. vitamin K
b. zinc
c. iron
d. magnesium
e. vitamin A

There is no RDA for biotin because ________.
a. biotin can be synthesized in the body
b. it is not a true essential nutrient
c. there is insufficient research on biotin requirements
d. biotin is widespread in foods so requirements are not a concern
e. its role in energy metabolism can be met by another vitamin

Vitamin B6 deficiency is characterized by ________.
a. depression and confusion in the early stages
b. numbness and muscle damage
c. macrocytic anemia
d. convulsions in the early stages
e. purplish tongue

Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of ________.
a. myelin sheath
b. hair and nails
c. collagen
d. histamine
e. red blood cells

Vitamins can readily be destroyed during processing because they ________.
a. are precursors.
b. contain nitrogen
c. are organic
d. support growth
e. support digestion

What disease can result from prolonged thiamin deficiency?
a. pernicious anemia
b. scurvy
c. cheilosis
d. pellagra
e. beriberi

What is "niacin flush"?
a. a condition that develops with niacin deficiency.
b. a condition that develops with nicotinic deficiency.
c. a condition of low levels of niacin in the blood.
d. a pharmacological effect that occurs from taking large doses of supplemental or prescription niacin.
e. a physiological effect that occurs from consuming large doses of the nicotinamide form of niacin

What is the main cause of vitamin B12 deficiency?
a. inadequate intake
b. poor absorption
c. impaired folate metabolism
d. excessive intrinsic factor
e. weight loss

What is the name of the coenzyme form of thiamin?
a. thiamin pyrophosphate
b. thiaminacide
c. thiamin mononucleotide
d. thiamin flavin
e. thiamin adenine dinucleotide

What is the richest source of folate?
a. white rice
b. broccoli
c. pork
d. potatoes
e. corn

Which amino acid is the precursor to niacin?
a. lysine
b. glycine
c. tryptophan
d. phenylalanine
e. valine

Which B vitamin is needed in very small amounts in the diet but whose role as a coenzyme in the TCA cycle is critical in helping to replenish oxaloacetate is ________.
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. choline
d. biotin
e. pyridoxine

Which B vitamin is stored extensively in muscle tissue?
a. biotin
b. folate
c. thiamin
d. pantothenic acid
e. vitamin B6

Which group is more prone to vitamin B12 deficiency?
a. older adults
b. teenagers
c. infants
d. cigarette smokers
e. athletes

Which of the following functions is true of vitamins in general?
a. They are considered macronutrients.
b. Some yield energy.
c. Structurally, they are linked together.
d. They help enzymes participate in the release of energy from carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
e. They are not as readily available in food as carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

Which of the following is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency?
a. edema
b. purplish tongue
c. anemia
d. constipation
e. diarrhea

Which of the following is NOT a role of thiamin?
a. energy metabolism
b. ATP production
c. participation in the TCA cycle
d. DNA synthesis
e. conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

Which of the following is NOT known to increase vitamin C needs?
a. chronic use of oral contraceptives
b. infections
c. burns
d. physical activity
e. cigarette smoking

Which of the following is NOT true of biotin?
a. It is involved in gluconeogenesis.
b. Deficiencies are rare.
c. It acts as a co-enzyme in the TCA cycle.
d. Some is produced by GI bacteria.
e. A good source is egg whites.

Which of the following is NOT true of folate?
a. It comes in two forms.
b. It is involved in DNA synthesis
c. Its bioavailability is the same whatever the source.
d. It is involved in converting vitamin B12 to one of its coenzyme forms.
e. It regenerates the amino acid methionine from homocysteine.

Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12
a. It is found almost exclusively in animal-derived foods.
b. It converts folate to its active form.
c. It helps maintain nerve cells.
d. It depends on intrinsic factor for absorption.
e. It works closely with thiamin.

Which of the following is symptom of scurvy?
a. purplish tongue
b. poor wound healing
c. edema
d. hair loss
e. oily skin

Which of the following is true of niacin?
a. Large doses of the nicotinic acid form can raise HDL cholesterol.
b. Large doses of the nicotinic acid form can raise LDL cholesterol.
c. Treatment for the deficiency disease, pellagra, often includes supplements of the amino acid leucine.
d. Toxicity is unknown.
e. High doses can treat liver diseases.

Which of the following is true of pantothenic acid?
a. It is the only B vitamin not involved in energy metabolism.
b. It is relatively stable in most food-preparation methods.
c. It is known to be toxic in large doses.
d. It is involved in more than 100 steps in the synthesis of certain compounds.
e. It is found in a few select foods.

Which of the following is true of riboflavin?
a. It is also known as vitamin B1.
b. It is easily destroyed by heat.
c. People who follow a strict vegetarian diet can't get adequate amounts from food alone.
d. Significant sources are citrus products.
e. It remains stable when exposed to heat.

Which of the following is true of thiamin?
a. It is easily destroyed by heat.
b. The average thiamin intake in the United States is inadequate.
c. It is sometimes referred to as vitamin B2.
d. Boiling is a good cooking method for conserving a food's thiamin content.
e. It works hand in hand with vitamin C.

Which of the following is true of vitamin B6?
a. Toxicity is unknown.
b. Deficiency is unknown.
c. It occurs in three forms.
d. It is stable in heat.
e. Larger doses can enhance muscle strength.

Which of the following statements is true of choline?
a. It is sometimes referred to as vitamin H.
b. It is not a B vitamin but is grouped with the B vitamins anyway.
c. In most cases, the body can make enough choline to meet its needs.
d. Choline's only function is to make the phospholipid lecithin.
e. It is defined as a nonvitamin.

Which of the following substances contributes to the destruction of vitamin B6 in the body?
a. vitamin A
b. fats
c. tryptophan
d. alcohol
e. nicotine

Which of the following vitamins is known to be toxic in large doses?
a. biotin
b. niacin
c. thiamin
d. vitamin B12
e. riboflavin

Which of these is the greatest contributor of riboflavin in most people's diet?
a. milk and milk products
b. meat, poultry and fish
c. dark green, leafy vegetables
d. eggs
e. fruit

Which of these vitamins is easily destroyed by food processing?
a. biotin
b. nicotinic acid
c. pantothenic acid
d. thiamin
e. riboflavin

Which term describes vitamins that are inactive in food but become active once inside the body?
a. cofactors
b. coenzymes
c. precursors
d. equivalents
e. antioxidants

Which type of anemia is characterized by large, immature red blood cells and caused by deficiencies of folate and vitamin B12?
a. sickle cell
b. microcytic
c. megaloblastic
d. hemolytic
e. aplastic

Which type of supplement is particularly toxic and has caused deaths in children?
a. iron supplements
b. calcium supplements
c. vitamin E supplements
d. vitamin D supplements
e. folate supplements

Which vitamin is also known as antiscorbutic factor?
a. vitamin C
b. vitamin b6
c. vitamin b12
d. vitamin d
e. vitamin a

Which vitamin is made in the body from methionine?
a. pyridoxine
b. thiamin
c. riboflavin
d. choline
e. niacin

Why is folate supplementation recommended for women 1 month before conception and during the first trimester of pregnancy?
a. To reduce the risk of gestational diabetes.
b. To prevent severe morning sickness.
c. To prevent neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, which may occur during the early weeks of pregnancy.
d. To help reduce the risk of iron-deficient anemia.
e. To help ensure a healthy maternal weight gain during pregnancy.