Nutrition Exam 2 (5,6,7)

A reference protein is determined by comparing its amino acid composition with the essential amino acid requirements of ________.

a. infants

b. preschool-age children

c. male teenagers

d. pregnant women

e. adult men

A vegetarian who plans a meal involving black beans can consume all the essential amino acids by adding another a plant protein rich in ________.

a. lysine

b. tyrosine

c. methionine

d. isoleucine

e. phenylalanine

A vegetarian who plans a meal involving rice can consume all the essential amino acids by adding another plant protein rich in ________.

a. lysine

b. tryptophan

c. phenylalanine

d. glutamic acid

e. methionine

Amino means containing ______.

a. oxygen

b. sulfur

c. carbon

d. hydrogen

e. nitrogen

An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is _____.

a. insulin

b. tryptophan

c. hemoglobin

d. disulfide bridges

e. valine

An otherwise healthy person regularly consuming a high-protein diet risks ________.

a. liver disease

b. decreased size of the liver and kidneys

c. dehydration

d. ulcers

e. diabetes

Approximately how many protein-coding genes are in the human genome?

a. 5000 to 7000

b. 10,000 to 15,000

c. 20,000 to 25,000

d. 40,000 to 45,000

e. 80,000 to 85,000

For whom is nitrogen balance typically positive?

a. pregnant women

b. starving children

c. burn victims

d. febrile children

e. adult men

If a nonessential amino acid is not available, cells can make it from a keto acid if a(an)________ source is available.

a. carbonyl

b. nitrogen

c. ammonia

d. carbon

e. oxygen

In PKU, the body cannot convert phenylalanine to

a. serine

b. leucine

c. isoleucine

d. tyrosine

e. tryptophan

In what part of the GI tract is pepsin active?

a. mouth

b. stomach

c. pancreas

d. small intestine

e. liver

Of all the amino acids, how many must be supplied by the diet?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 9

d. 13

e. 17

Proteins acts as buffers because they ________.

a. help emulsify fats

b. help maintain a constant pH

c. facilitate chemical reactions

d. help protect against plaque buildup

e. prevent degradation of proteins

Scars are made from which type of protein?

a. ferritin

b. albumin

c. collagen

d. hemoglobin

e. enzyme

Sickle-cell anemia involves a sequencing error in the structure of

a. hemoglobin

b. valine

c. insulin

d. thyroxine

The amino acid homocysteine is elevated in ________.

a. cancer

b. kidney disease

c. heart disease

d. protein-energy malnutrition

e. osteoporosis

The degradation and synthesis of protein is called “________.”

a. protein turnover

b. nitrogen balance

c. amino acid pool

d. immunity

e. transamination

The digestibility of most animal proteins is ________.

a. 50 to 59%

b. 60 to 69%

c. 70 to 79%

d. 80 to 89%

e. 90 to 99%

The digestibility of most plant proteins (beside legumes) is ____.

a. 30 to 50%

b. 50 to 60%

c. 60 to 70%

d. 70 to 90%

e. 90 to 99%

The essential amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine, which are present in large amounts in skeletal muscle tissue, are called ________ amino acids.

a. essential

b. nonessential

c. branched-chain

d. conditionally essential

e. polypeptide

The primary structure of proteins is the

a. polypeptide tangles

b. double helix

c. polypeptide shapes

d. amino acid sequence

e. polypeptide interactions

The process by which a cell converts the genetic code into RNA and protein is called

a. transcription

b. translation

c. expression

d. sequencing

e. denaturation

The process of messenger RNA being made from a template of DNA is

a. transcription

b. translation

c. expression

d. sequencing

e. denaturation

The process of messenger RNA directing the sequence of amino acids and synthesis of proteins is called

a. transcription

b. translation

c. expression

d. sequencing

e. denaturation

The production of urea hits its maximum rate at intakes approaching ________ grams of protein per day.

a. 5

b. 50

c. 100

d. 250

e. 500

The protein RDA for adults is ________ grams per kilogram of body weight.

a. 0.08

b. 0.36

c. 0.8

d. 3.6

e. 8

The protein-making machinery of the cell is the ____.

a. mitochondria

b. nucleus

c. cell wall

d. cytoplasm

e. ribosome

The quaternary structure of proteins is the

a. polypeptide tangles

b. double helix

c. polypeptide shapes

d. amino acid sequence

e. polypeptide interactions

The secondary structure of proteins is the _____.

a. polypeptide tangles

b. double helix

c. polypeptide shapes

d. amino acid sequence

e. polypeptide interactions

The tangled shape of a polypeptide is its ________ structure, which gives it maximum stability.

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. quaternary

e. denaturalized

To build a bone or tooth, cells first lay down a matrix and then fill it with crystals of

a. amino acids

b. DNA

c. minerals

d. vitamins

e. glucose

Transamination produces a new nonessential amino acid and a new ________.

a. uric acid

b. keto acid

c. folic acid

d. gluco acid

e. phyto acid

Transport proteins within a cell membrane pick up and release which of the following across the membrane?

a. fats and carbohydrates

b. sodium and potassium

c. hydrogen and nitrogen

d. acids and enzymes

e. calcium and phosphorus

What component denatures protein structures and activates pepsinogen?

a. hydrochloric acid

b. pepsin

c. trypsin

d. enteropeptidase

e. chymotrypsin

What does the amino acid alanine have as its side group?

a. 1 carbon and 3 hydrogens

b. 1 hydrogen

c. 1 carbon

d. 1 hydrogen and 3 carbons

e. 1 hydrogen and 1 carbon

What does the amino acid glycine have as its side group?

a. 1 carbon and 3 hydrogens

b. 1 hydrogen

c. 1 carbon

d. 1 hydrogen and 3 carbons

e. 1 hydrogen and 1 carbon

What happens when pepsin enters the small intestine?

a. It activates HCl.

b. It is digested due to the high pH.

c. It cleaves proteins into smaller peptides and some free amino acids.

d. It inhibits pepsinogen synthesis.

e. It denatures protein structures.

What is fibrin?

a. an antigen

b. an antibody

c. a light-sensitive protein

d. a blood clotting protein

e. a sterol

What is the average daily protein intake in the U.S.?

a. 50 g

b. 65 g

c. 80 g

d. 125 g

e. 175 g

What is the chief function of pepsin?

a. emulsifying dietary proteins

b. activating hydrochloric acid

c. activating pancreatic proteases

d. cleaving proteins into smaller polypeptides

e. emulsifying dietary fats

What is the effect of compounds that do not fit an enzyme’s active site?

a. A new compound is formed.

b. The compounds are denatured.

c. No reaction is triggered.

d. The enzyme is converted to its inactive form.

e. The enzyme is activated.

What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood urea levels?

a. liver dysfunction

b. kidney dysfunction

c. rapid weight gain

d. protein intake one-tenth the RDA

e. hyperstimulation of the immune system

What must happen to the transport protein before it releases sodium outside the cell?

a. It must pick up oxygen

b. It must pick up potassium

c. It must change shape

d. It must change charge

e. It must be hydrolyzed

What type of chemical reaction connects amino acids?

a. hydrolysis

b. oxidation

c. denaturation

d. condensation

e. polymerization

When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a _____.

a. uric acid

b. keto acid

c. folic acid

d. gluco acid

e. fatty acid

When does the pancreas release insulin?

a. When blood glucose falls

b. After a meal

c. When cells destroy glucose

d. When plasma proteins leak

e. After detecting an antigen

When nitrogen losses exceed the amount of nitrogen taken into the body, the person is in ________.

a. a healthy state

b. nitrogen equilibrium

c. positive nitrogen balance

d. negative nitrogen balance

e. nitrogen homeostasis

Whether silencing or activating a gene is beneficial or harmful for the body depends on

a. which nutrient is involved

b. what the gene does

c. which area of the gene is involved

d. the amount of kcalories consumed

e. the age of the person

Which amino acid has been advertised in the popular media for treating insomnia and depression?

a. glycine

b. arginine

c. tryptophan

d. phenylalanine

e. proline

Which amino acid important for muscle growth is high in whey protein?

a. leucine

b. isoleucine

c. lysine

d. methionine

e. tryptophan

Which amino acid is conditionally essential in the condition phenylketonuria?

a. tryptophan

b. serine

c. tyrosine

d. alanine

e. phenylalanine

Which amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter epinephrine and the pigment melanin?

a. glycine

b. tyrosine

c. methionine

d. tryptophan

e. valine

Which amino acid may protect against heart disease by lowering blood pressure and preventing blood clots?

a. arginine

b. cysteine

c. tryptophan

d. phenylalanine

e. methionine

Which condition would require an adjustment in the recommended intake of protein that differs from the RDA?

a. kidney disease

b. heart disease

c. osteoporosis

d. stroke

e. diabetes

Which group does each amino acid have?

a. acid

b. hydroxyl

c. methyl

d. carbonyl

e. phosphate

Which nutrient increases methylation in certain genes and may protect against some cancers?

a. folate

b. vitamin C

c. vitamin D

d. thiamine

e. vitamin B12

Which of the following are responsible for urea synthesis?

a. all amino acids

b. animal sources of proteins only

c. essential amino acids only

d. nonessential amino acids only

e. vegetarian sources of protein only

Which of the following cannot support growth and health as a diet’s sole protein?

a. fish

b. cheese

c. gelatin

d. turkey

e. fatty fish

Which of the following foods contains all of the essential amino acids in relatively the same amounts that the human body requires?

a. turkey

b. quinoa

c. broccoli

d. gelatin

e. pumpkin seeds

Which of the following is a nonessential amino acid?

a. serine

b. histidine

c. valine

d. tryptophan

e. phenylalanine

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

a. cysteine

b. valine

c. glutamine

d. glycine

e. aspartic acid

Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins in the body?

a. providing fuel for energy needs

b. facilitating chemical reactions

c. maintaining volume of body fluids

d. protecting the body against diseases

e. inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol

Which of the following is NOT a limiting amino acid?

a. lysine

b. methionine

c. threonine

d. tryptophan

e. serine

Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?

a. the side group

b. the central carbon atom

c. the amino group

d. the acid group

e. the presence of a central hydrogen atom

Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses?

a. enzymes

b. collagen

c. hormones

d. antibodies

e. antigens

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a carcinogen by the World Health Organization?

a. bacon

b. hot dogs

c. beef jerky

d. chicken

e. ham

Which process renders hemoglobin unable to carry oxygen?

a. transcription

b. expression

c. translation

d. hydrogenation

e. denaturation

Which protein regulates fluid and electrolyte balance?

a. renin

b. pepsin

c. insulin

d. oxytocin

e. glucagon

Which protein regulates the body’s metabolic rate?

a. collagen

b. thyroxine

c. pepsin

d. oxytocin

e. prolactin

Which protein supports lactation?

a. glucagon

b. thyroxine

c. pepsin

d. oxytocin

e. calcitonin

Which protein transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells?

a. collagen

b. insulin

c. pepsin

d. hemoglobin

e. prolactine

Which protein, acting as a hormone, regulates blood glucose?

a. oxytocin

b. prolactin

c. thyroxine

d. antidiuretic

e. insulin

Which statement accurately describes the relationship between dietary protein and kidney function?

a. Protein deficiency increases the risk of kidney stones.

b. Restricting dietary protein helps slow the progression of kidney disease.

c. Long-term, high-protein diets are a risk factor for kidney disease.

d. High urea production from high-protein diets increases kidney efficiency.

e. High-protein diets are recommended for childhood with genetic kidney issues.

Which term refers to the change in a protein’s shape due to the application of heat or acid?

a. oxygenation

b. condensation

c. denaturation

d. destabilization

e. hydrolyzation

Which term refers to the study of how genes influence the activities of nutrients?

a. nutrigenetics

b. nutrigenomics

c. genetic synthesis

d. human nutritional economics

e. bioproteomics

Which term refers to the study of how nutrients influence the activities of genes?

a. nutrigenetics

b. nutrigenomics

c. genetic synthesis

d. human nutritional economics

e. bioproteomics

Which types of bridges are present in the protein insulin?

a. dipeptide

b. tripeptide

c. polypeptide

d. disulfide

e. trisulfide

Without enough protein, the body may become more susceptible to infection due to inability to manufacture

a. antagonists

b. antibodies

c. antigens

d. antidiuretic hormone

e. antioxidants

A feature of catabolic reactions is that they _______.

a. involve release of energy

b. occur only in mitochondria

c. involve consumption of energy

d. occur only during loss of body weight

e. involve storage of energy

About how many kcalories are in a 12-ounce serving of regular beer?

a. 103 kcal

b. 153 kcal

c. 205 kcal

d. 235 kcal

e. 526 kcal

After about 10 days of fasting, which one of these compounds will be the nervous system’s main fuel provider?

a. ketone bodies

b. glycerol

c. fatty acids

d. amino acids

e.protein

Alcohol depresses the pituitary gland’s production of _______.

a. ADH

b. acetyl CoA

c. CCK

d. ATP

e. ketone bodies

Amino acids that enter the TCA cycle directly are considered _____.

a. glycogenic

b. gluconeogenic

c. glucogenic

d. ketogenic

e. oxalates

Before entering the metabolic pathways, amino acids first face____.

a. removal of their nitrogen-containing amino group

b. removal of their nitrogen

c. conversion to protein

d. condensation of their bonds

e. removal of their acetyl group

During anabolism, what is occurring?

a. Energy is released.

b. Energy is required.

c. Compounds are broken down.

d. ADP is created.

e. ATP is broken down.

During the first few days of a fast, body protein provides about what percentage of the glucose the body needs to fuel itself?

a. 15%

b. 25%

c. 35%

d. 75%

e. 90%

During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides maximum amounts of the glucose needed to fuel the body?

a. protein

b. ketones

c. glycogen

d. triglycerides

e. vitamins and minerals

Fatty acid oxidation produces ____.

a. ketones

b. fructose

c. pyruvate

d. acetyl CoA

e. lactate

Fatty acids are metabolized via

a. the TCA cycle

b. the Cori cycle

c. the electron transport chain

d. glycolysis

e. hydrolysis

From which B vitamin is CoA, or coenzyme A, derived, making it central to energy metabolism?

a. folate

b. pantothenic acid

c. niacin

d. thiamin

e. vitamin B12

How many carbons does acetyl CoA have?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. 6

How many electrons are released in each turn of the TCA cycle?

a. 6

b. 8

c. 10

d. 16

e. 32

How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?

a. within 3 weeks

b. 1 month

c. 2 months

d. 3 to 4 months

e. About 6 months

If a cell needs energy and oxygen is available, pyruvate enters which part of the cell?

a. Ribosome

b. Cell wall

c. Cytoplasm

d. Nucleus

e. Mitochondria

In energy metabolism, glycerol can convert to _____.

a. vitamin A

b. fructose

c. pyruvate

d. fatty acids

e. triglycerides

In general, how long does it take the liver to process the alcohol in a typical drink?

a. 15 minutes

b. 30 minutes

c. 1 hour

d. 2 hours

e. 4 hours

In glycolysis, what is the net yield of one glucose molecule?

a. one pyruvate molecule

b. two pyruvate molecules

c. three pyruvate molecules

d. four pyruvate molecules

e. five pyruvate molecules

In the Cori cycle, lactate is converted to glucose in the ____.

a. muscles

b. liver

c. bloodstream

d. gallbladder

e. pancreas

In the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, which compound is involved in both the first and the last step?

a. glucose

b. oxaloacetate

c. lactate

d. ketones

e. carbon dioxide

In which process are the mitochondria of the cells involved?

a. conversion of pyruvate to ATP

b. synthesis of lipid

c. synthesis of vitamins and minerals

d. synthesis of cholesterol

e. hydrolysis of glycogen to glucose

In which process is the cytoplasm involved?

a. lipid synthesis

b. protein synthesis

c. electron transport chain

d. glycolysis

e. oxidation

Ketogenic diets are useful for _______.

a. sustaining weight loss

b. treating epilepsy

c. growing muscle

d. maintaining a healthy pregnancy

e. treating gout

Ketone bodies can efficiently provide fuel for which type of cells?

a. Hepatic

b. Adipocytes

c. Brain

d. Renal

e. Epithelial

Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?

a. 10%

b. 30%

c. 50%

d. 90%

e. 100%

Once acetyl CoA is formed, it has two main options: to generate ATP or to _____.

a. convert to urea

b. make glucose

c. convert to ammonia

d. turn into carbon dioxide

e. make fats

One way that alcohol metabolism affects the energy pathways is that ______.

a. it gives priority to the metabolism of the energy-producing nutrients

b. it speeds up the TCA cycle

c. it increases synthesis of proteins

d. it shifts the body’s acid–base balance to make it more alkaline

e. it promotes the making of lactate from pyruvate

Some of the energy released in the TCA cycle is captures in which compound?

a. acetyl CoA

b. ATP

c. glucose

d. glycerol

e. fatty acid

The acidic compounds produced by the liver during incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrate is not available are known as _______.

a. fatty acids

b. triglycerides

c. coenzymes

d. ketone bodies

e. amino acids

The amount of pure ethanol in a typical "drink" is ____.

a. 0.5 ounce

b. 1 ounce

c. 1.5 ounces

d. 2 ounces

e. 4 ounces

The conversion of energy from food to ATP energy occurs with an efficiency rate of about________.

a. 50%

b. 65%

c. 75%

d. 90%

e. 100%

The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is _______.

a. part of the TCA cycle

b. reversible

c. part of the Cori cycle

d. anaerobic

e. part of the electron transport chain

The formation of glycogen by the liver cell from glucose molecules is an example of _______.

a. oxidation

b. glycolysis

c. anabolism

d. catabolism

e. photosynthesis

The liver converts which of the following to fatty acids?

a. glucose

b. dextrose

c. sucrose

d. maltose

e. fructose

The metabolic breakdown of glucose to pyruvate is known as ________.

a. hydrolysis

b. synthesis

c. glycolysis

d. activation

e. energy release

The metabolism of alcohol begins in the ____.

a. liver

b. brain

c. stomach

d. intestines

e. mouth

The number of ATP molecules that can be produced from a molecule of protein, fat, or carbohydrate is generally related to the number of atoms of _____.

a. carbon

b. oxygen

c. nitrogen

d. hydrogen

e. potassium

The process in which fatty acids are taken apart two carbons at a time is known as _______.

a. electron transport

b. hydrogenation

c. fatty acid oxidation

d. dehydrogenase

e. moderation

The process of converting lactate from muscles to glucose in the liver that can be returned to the muscles is known as (the) _______.

a. TCA cycle

b. electron transport chain

c. hydrolysis

d. Cori cycle

e. fatty acid oxidation

The process of making glucose from non-carbohydrate sources is called _______.

a. glycolysis

b. gluconeogenesis

c. ketosis

d. deamination

e. oxidation

The simultaneous hydrolysis of ATP with reactions that will use energy is known as _______ reactions.

a. major

b. metabolic

c. coupled

d. enzymatic

e. chemical

The Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome in people with chronic alcohol abuse stems primarily from a deficiency of ____.

a. thiamin

b. folate

c. antidiuretic hormone

d. protein

e. alcohol dehydrogenase

Urea is produced as a result of _____.

a. deamination

b. protein synthesis

c. detoxification

d. anabolism

e. the Cori cycle

What are the "powerhouses" of the cell?

a. DNA

b. ribosomes

c. RNA

d. electron transport chains

e. mitochondria

What does the body do with the chemical energy of food that is not converted to the chemical energy of ATP?

a. removes it through the kidneys

b. radiates it as heat

c. converts it to carbon dioxide that is then expelled through the lungs

d. converts it to electromagnetic radiation

e. stores it in the body’s fat cells

What effect does chronic alcohol abuse have on the B vitamin folate?

a. It increases the liver’s ability to retain folate.

b. It decreases kidney excretion of folate.

c. It damages the small intestine’s ability to retrieve folate.

d. It interferes with the conversion of methionine to homocysteine.

e. It increases the production of new cells in the intestines.

What happens first when a person overeats protein?

a. Muscle is built.

b. Protein oxidation increases.

c. Normal daily losses are replaced.

d. It is stored as body fat.

e. It is converted to glucose.

What happens first when carbohydrates are eaten in excess?

a. They are stored as glycogen.

b. They are stored as body fat.

c. Dietary fat is spared from oxidation.

d. They are converted to fatty acids.

e. They are converted to amino acids.

What is acetaldehyde?

a. a toxic compound created in alcohol metabolism

b. an enzyme used in alcohol metabolism

c. a substance in liver that helps detoxify alcohol

d. a ketone body

e. the final product of alcohol metabolism

What is the final metabolic pathway for all energy-yielding nutrients?

a. the TCA cycle

b. the Cori cycle

c. the electron transport chain

d. glycolysis

e. hydrolysis

What is the final yield of acetyl CoA molecules from the oxidation of a 16-carbon fatty acid?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 10

d. 12

e. 16

What is the major site for gluconeogenesis?

a. liver

b. brain

c. muscle

d. small intestine

e. pancreas

What is the sugar that helps make up ATP?

a. sucrose

b. glucose

c. dextrose

d. phosphate

e. ribose

What is true of alcohol intake in heavy doses?

a. It contributes to weight gain.

b. It generates more heat than fat metabolically.

c. It causes most body fat gain in the extremities.

d. It is defined as one drink daily.

e. It causes increased excretion of vitamin A.

What occurs when a person eats in excess?

a. Fat cells multiply.

b. Fat cells enlarge.

c. Metabolism favors carbohydrate.

d. Metabolism favors protein.

e. Their energy needs increase temporarily.

What percentage (by weight) of a triglyceride molecule can be converted to glucose?

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 25%

d. 50%

e. 75%

What percentage of a person’s ingested energy intake is required to store excess dietary fat as body fat?

a. 5

b. 15

c. 25

d. 35

e. 45

When a person performing intense physical exercise begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the muscles respond by synthesizing more ____.

a. lactate

b. glucose

c. citric acid

d. fatty acids

e. galactate

When consumed while drinking, which nutrient contributes to keeping alcohol in the stomach longer?

a. water

b. high-fat snacks

c. high-carbohydrate snacks

d. high-protein snacks

e. salty snacks

When energy-yielding nutrients are consumed in excess, which one(s) are stored in body fat?

a. fat only

b. carbohydrate only

c. fat and carbohydrate only

d. fat, carbohydrate, and protein

e. protein and fat only

When health experts say to consume alcohol “in moderation,” what do they mean?

a. Men should have no more than two drinks per day; women, no more than one drink per day.

b. Men and women should have no more than two drinks per day.

c. Men should have no more than four drinks per week; women, no more than two drinks per week.

d. Men and women should have no more than one drink per day.

e. Men and women should have no more than two drinks in a 4-hour period.

When the body needs energy quickly, pyruvate is converted to ________.

a. acetyl CoA

b. lactate

c. ATP

d. carbon dioxide

e. oxygen

When the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body’s needs for glucose, which of these compounds can be converted to glucose?

a. fatty acids

b. acetyl CoA

c. amino acids

d. carbon dioxide

e. urea

Where do the TCA cycle reactions occur?

a. nucleus

b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c. inner sections of the mitochondria

d. rough endoplasmic reticulum

e. ribosomes

Which area of the brain is first sedated by alcohol?

a. frontal lobe

b. pons

c. midbrain

d. cerebellum

e. medulla oblongata

Which functions are most sensitive to alcohol?

a. speech and vision

b. judgment and reasoning

c. voluntary muscle control

d. respiration and heart function

e. balance and coordination

Which of the following can be synthesized from all three energy-yielding nutrients?

a. lactate

b. glycogen

c. acetyl CoA

d. oxaloacetate

e. glucose

Which of the following cannot be made into glucose by cells?

a. pyruvate

b. glycerol

c. glycogen

d. fatty acids

e. amino acids

Which of the following is a feature of ketosis?

a. higher blood pH

b. acetone breath

c. increased appetite

d. increased glycolysis

e. synthesis of body protein

Which of the following is a group of enzymes for metabolizing drugs and alcohol?

a. ADH

b. MEOS

c. ATP

d. TCA

e. ETOH

Which of the following is NOT a protein?

a. coenzymes

b. enzymes

c. hormones

d. hemoglobin

e. collagen

Which of the following occurs with excess carbohydrate intake?

a. The carbohydrate is efficiently converted to body fat.

b. It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat.

c. Oxidation is decreased.

d. It causes the release of glycogen.

e. It causes the release of lactate.

Which of these is an anabolic reaction?

a. glycogen to glucose

b. amino acids to protein

c. energy release

d. protein to amino acids

e. triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol

Which term describes the excretion of ketones in the urine?

a. ketosis

b. ketoacidosis

c. ketonuria

d. ketonemia

e. ketolysis

Which type of alcohol is present in beer, wine, and spirits?

a. methanol

b. isopropanol

c. ethanol

d. glycerol

e. mannitol

Which type of alcohol is used to make triglycerides?

a. methanol

b. isopropanol

c. ethanol

d. glycerol

e. mannitol

Why is it easier for the body to convert dietary fat to stored fat than dietary carbohydrate to stored fat?

a. The conversion of dietary fat to stored fat requires fewer steps.

b. The conversion of dietary fat to stored fat allows for use of more energy.

c. Fat enters the bloodstream more quickly.

d. Fat is easier to digest.

e. Fat takes less time to digest.

Which is NOT part of the enterohepatic circulation of bile?
a. Bile is made from cholesterol in the liver.
b. Bile is stored in the pancreas
c. Bile emulsifies fats in the small intestine.
d. Bile is reabsorbed in to the blood.
e. Bile that has been trapped in soluble fibers in the colon is excreted.

Which of the following foods share the same space with meats on the Mediterranean Diet Pyramid?
a. sweets
b. cheese
c. poultry
d. legumes
e. olive oil

A diglyceride is two fatty acids attached to a molecule of _____.
a. glucose
b. glycogen
c. glycerol
d. glycol
e. glucagon

A high risk of heart disease correlates with high blood levels of
a. free fatty acids.
b. high-density lipoproteins.
c. low-density lipoproteins.
d. very high-density lipoproteins.
e. high levels of omega- 3 fatty acids.

A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of ____.
a. EPA
b. DHA
c. mercury
d. cadmium
e. dioxins

About how much of the fat in cheese and sour cream is saturated?
a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 2/3
e. 7/8

According to surveys, the average daily cholesterol intake (mg/day) of U.S. women is about _____.
a. 110
b. 221
c. 360
d. 925
e. 315

According to the DRI, what percentage of the daily energy intake should be provided by linoleic acid?
a. 0.6 to 1.2
b. 2 to 4.7
c. 5 to 10
d. 15.5 to 18
e. 20 to 35

According to the Mediterranean Diet Pyramid, how often should one eat fish and seafood?
a. once a week
b. at least twice a week
c. only once a month
d. no more than a few times a month
e. never

Adipokines secreted by adipose cells are _____.
a. lipids
b. proteins
c. hormones
d. micronutrients
e. neurotransmitters

An alcohol composed of a three-carbon chain, which can serve as the backbone for a triglyceride is called _____.
a. alcohol
b. hydroxyl
c. sorbitol
d. glycerol
e. aldehyde

By definition, lipids that are solid at room temperature (77°F [25°C]) are called "________."
a. oils
b. fats
c .omegas
d. glycerols
e. phospholipids

Cholesterol intakes in the United States average how many milligrams for men?
a. 112
b. 175
c. 221
d. 315
e. 355

Clusters of lipids derived from VLDL that move through the blood are called _____.
a. low-density lipoproteins
b. high-density lipoproteins
c. micelles
d. chylomicrons
e. fatty acids

Fat supplies about what percentage of the body's ongoing energy needs during rest?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 60%
e. 80%

Fatty acids consist of a chain of carbon and hydrogen atoms with an acid group on one end and which type of group at the other end?
a. hydroxyl
b. methyl
c. amino
d. carboxyl
e. phosphate

How many kcalories are contributed by 1 gram of dietary fat?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
e. 15

In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains ____.
a. more chylomicrons
b. more protein
c. more cholesterol
d. more carbohydrate
e. more triglyceride

Naturally occurring fatty acids contain even numbers of which molecules in their chains?
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. oxygen
d. nitrogen
e. phosphorus

Oleic acid is a monounsaturated fatty acid. Linoleic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid. They differ in their number of ________.
a. amino acids
b. double bonds
c. saccharide units
d. peptide linkages
e. oxygen atoms

Sucrose polyester is another name for _________.
a. BHA
b. DHA
c. olestra
d. I fat
e. omega-3 fats

Surveys show that most diets in the United States provide about what percentage of their total energy from fat?
a. 25%
b. 33%
c. 45%
d. 55%
e. 75%

The double bond of a fatty acid, where hydrogen atoms can easily be added, is called the _____.
a. point of unsaturation
b. point of entry
c. point of view
d. point of hydrogenation
e. point of composition

The DRI suggests a diet that provides what percentage of the daily energy intake from fat?
a. less than 10%
b. 10% to 20%
c. 20% to 35%
d. 40% to 50%
e. 50% to 60%

Jamila eats a meal containing some fats. Her body has removed the chylomicrons from her blood within how many hours after absorption?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 14
d. 18
e. 24

The release of CCK and bile is triggered when fat enters the
a. mouth
b. esophagus
c. stomach
d. small intestine
e. large intestine

The term that refers to a chemical configuration in which the hydrogen atoms are located on the same side of a double bond is _____.
a. trans
b. de
c. endo
d. exo
e. cis

What are chylomicrons?
a. clusters of lipids and proteins used as transport vehicles from the intestines to the body
b. tiny spheres of emulsified fat
c. alcohols with three-carbon chains
d. food additives
e. nitrogen compounds found in foods and made in the body

Under what condition does lingual lipase play an active role in fat digestion?
a. gallbladder removal
b. infancy
c. liver disease
d. diabetes
e. appendix removal

What does the process of hydrogenation do?
a. shortens the carbon chain
b. converts cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids
c. removes the methyl group
d. lengthens the carbon chain
e. separates fatty acids from glycerol

What effect does hydrogenation have on foods?
a. Adds a creamy consistency.
b. Enhances flavor.
c. Protects against oxidation.
d. Inhibits bacterial growth.
e. Promotes yeast fermentatio

What is a unique property of phospholipids?
a. They are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
b. They have a trans structure.
c. They have a multiple-ring structure.
d. They have three double bonds.
e. They carry a negative charge.

What is a unique property of sterols?
a. They are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
b. They have a trans structure.
c. They have a multiple-ring structure.
d. They have three double bonds.
e. They carry a negative charge.

What is the characteristic property of an omega 3-fatty acid?
a. It contains three double bonds.
b. Its closest double bond is three carbons away from the acid end.
c. Its closest double bond is three carbons away from the methyl end.
d. Its closest double bond is three carbons away from each end.
e. Its structure bends three times

What is the main cause of cardiovascular disease?
a. endocarditis
b. aneurysm
c. arrhythmias
d. atherosclerosis
e. cardiomyopathy

What is the recommended weekly intake of fish?
a. 3 ounces
b. 8 ounces
c. 13 ounces
d. 18 ounces
e. 23 ounces

What is the highest blood triglyceride concentration (mg/dL) that falls within the desirable range?
a. 99
b. 149
c. 199
d. 299
e. 350

What replaces the glycerol molecule in the fat replacer olestra?
a. Maltose
b. Dextrose
c. Sucralose
d. Glucose
e. Sucrose

When the body is deprived of food, which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides so that their parts enter general circulation and are available to other cells?
a. lipoprotein lipase
b. adipose lipase
c. lingual lipase
d. hormone-sensitive lipase
e. pancreatic lipase

Where does exogenous cholesterol come from?
a. environmental contaminants
b. the food we consume
c. the liver
d. the gallbladder
e. genetic predisposition

Which adipokine promotes inflammation and causes insulin resistance?
a. leptin
b. adiponectin
c. resistin
d. retinol
e. chemerin

Which are the largest and least dense of the lipoproteins?
a. chylomicrons
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL
e. VHDL

Which fatty acid has three double bonds?
a .stearic acid
b. oleic acid
c. lauric acid
d. linoleic acid
e. linolenic acid

Which fatty acid has two double bonds?
a. stearic acid
b. oleic acid
c. lauric acid
d. linoleic acid
e. linolenic acid

Which fatty acid is missing two hydrogen atoms and has one double bond between carbons?
a. monounsaturated fatty acid
b. polyunsaturated fatty acid
c. long-chain saturated fatty acid
d. short-chain saturated fatty acid
e. triglycerides

Which fish is commonly low in the environmental contaminant mercury?
a. haddock
b. tilefish
c. swordfish
d. king mackerel
e. shark

Which is a chemical reaction in which water is released as two molecules that combine to form one larger product?
a. hydrogenation
b. hydrolysis
c. oxidation
d. condensation
e. saturation

Which is NOT a group of lipoproteins?
a. chylomicrons
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL
e. VHDL

Which is NOT a potential side effect of high intakes of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids?
a. increased bleeding time
b. rapid heartbeat
c. interference in wound healing
d. higher LDL cholesterol
e. suppressed immune functions

Which lipid is most abundant in foods and in the body?
a. sterols
b. glycerols
c. triglycerides
d. monoglycerides
e. polyglycerides

Which lipoprotein primarily transports cholesterol in the blood?
a. chylomicron
b. low-density lipoprotein
c. high-density lipoprotein
d. very-low-density lipoprotein
e. very-high-density lipoprotein

Which of the following describes how lecithin is different from a triglyceride?
a. Lecithin has to glycerol backbone.
b. Lecithin has no phosphate group.
c. Lecithin has only two fatty acids.
d. Lecithin is only hydrophilic.
e. Lecithin has no choline.

Which of the following foods contain cholesterol?
a. peas
b. pasta
c. baked chicken
d. wheat germ
e. boiled potatoes

Which of the following has the highest proportion of monounsaturated fatty acids?
a. fish oil
b. olive oil
c. soybean oil
d. coconut oil
e. butter

Which of the following has the highest proportion of saturated fatty acids?
a. Cottonseed oil
b. Walnut oil
c. Peanut oil
d. Palm oil
e. Coconut oil

Which of the following is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temperature?
a. origin of the fat
b. degree of saturation
c. number of acid groups
d. number of oxygen atoms
e. number of sulfur atoms.

Which of the following is a fat-digesting enzyme secreted in the mouth?
a. hydrophobic lipase
b. gastric lipase
c. lingual lipase
d. proteases lipase
e. ductal lipase

Which of the following is a potentially harmful source of lipids?
a. walnuts
b. yeast
c. nondairy coffee creamer
d. olive oil-based vinaigrette
e. natural peanut butter

Which of the following is a potentially healthful source of monounsaturated fats?
a. olives
b. coconut
c. pumpkin seeds
d. flaxseed
e. eggs

Which of the following is a source of trans-fats, a potentially harmful lipid?
a. mayonnaise
b. bacon
c. refrigerated biscuits
d. milk
e. peanut oil

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
a. lecithin
b. cholesterol
c. stearic acid
d. linolenic acid
e. adiponectin

Which of the following is not a main source of fat in the Mediterranean diet?
a. fish
b. olives
c. nuts
d. butter
e. cheese

Which of the following is NOT a sterol?
a. estrogen
b. cortisol
c. cholesterol
d. vitamin D
e. bile

Which of the following is representative of enterohepatic circulation?
a. chylomicron conversion to LDLs and HDLs
b. recycling of bile from the intestine to the liver
c. hormonal control of digestive secretions
d. liver secretion of eicosanoids that promote absorption of eicosanoid precursors
e. hormonal control of pancreatic secretions.

Which of the following is the definition of the term conjugated linoleic acid?
a. a type of cis-fatty acid
b. a triglyceride with a phosphate group
c. a fatty acid with the chemical makeup of linoleic acid but with a different configuration
d. a food additive that preserves or delays rancidity of fats in foods
e. a nitrogen-containing compound found in foods and made in the body from the amino acid methionine

Which of the following removes each of a triglyceride's fatty acids, leaving a monoglyceride.
a. lingual lipase
b. pancreatic lipase
c. salivary amylase
d. pancreatic protease
e. pancreatic amylase

Which of the following statements accurately defines the U.S. intake of saturated fats?
a. Zero saturated fat diets are possible with expert help.
b. More than half of the fat in most meats is saturated.
c. Tropical oils are frequently used by consumers.
d. Tropical oils are commonly found in commercially prepared foods.
e. Vegan diets and mixed diets have about the same amount of saturated fats.

Which of the following structural features of fatty acids determines their susceptibility to spoilage by oxygen and therefore stability?
a. chain length
b. number of double bonds
c. position of first saturated bond
d. size of adjacent fatty acids on the triglyceride molecule
e. temperature of the fatty acid

Which of the lipoproteins primarily transports triglycerides from the liver to other tissues?
a. chylomicrons
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL
e. VHDL

Which of these foods has the highest amount of omega-3 fatty acids per 3.5-oz serving?
a. Chilean sea bass
b. farmed catfish
c. monkfish
d. grouper
e. shrimp

Which of these is a member of the omega-3 family?
a. stearic acid
b. palmitic acid
c. linoleic acid
d. eicosapentaenoic acid
e. arachidonic acid

Which of these oils provides the most omega-3 fatty acid?
a. palm oil
b. walnut oil
c. soybean oil
d. flaxseed oil
e. corn oil

Which of these protein foods is the leanest?
a. eggs
b. tofu
c. flounder
d. peanut butter
e. pork tenderloin

Which set of blood tests reveals a person's total cholesterol, triglycerides, and various lipoproteins?
a. complete blood count
b. comprehensive metabolic panel
c. blood lipid profile
d. full thyroid panel
e. white blood cell count

Which statement about fat replacers is FALSE?
a. Olestra is a synthetic fat made from sucrose.
b. Olestra is fortified with vitamins A, D, E, and K
c. Carbohydrate-based fat replacers are used as thickeners in soups.
d. Fat-based fat replacers are heat-stable and used in cake mixes.
e. Olestra is an artificial fat that delivers a small amount of energy.

Which statement about the health effects of lipids is FALSE?
a. Heart disease is the number one killer of adults in the United States.
b. Smoking and alcohol consumption are stronger risk factors for cancer than is dietary fat.
c. There is no clear relationship between dietary cholesterol and heart disease.
d. Fat from milk or fish has not been implicated in cancer risk.
e. Choosing fat-free foods is an effective strategy in cutting kcalories.

Which statement accurately describes a feature of essential fatty acids?
a. Aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by promoting the synthesis of certain eicosanoids.
b. Eicosanoids from the omega-6 family of fatty acids provide a greater health benefit than do those from the omega-3 family.
c. Research shows that reducing the number of dietary omega-3 fatty acids may be beneficial.
d. Most diets in the United States meet the minimum fatty acid requirement.
e. Omega-3 eicosanoids promote clot formation, inflammation, and blood vessel constriction.

Which substance promotes insulin resistance?
a. insulin
b. resistin
c. adiponectin
d. glycogen
e. secretin

Which term describes the spherical complexes of emulsified fats that arise during digestion?
a. micelles
b. chylomicrons
c. lipoproteins
d. eicosanoids
e. adiponectin

Which term refers to water-soluble substances?
a. hydraulic
b. hydrophilic
c. hydrophobic
d. hydroxyl
e. hydrolytic

Which type of fat tends to be solid at room temperature?
a. monounsaturated
b. polyunsaturated
c. saturated
d. omega 3
e. omega 6

Which type of tissue is responsible for secreting proteins to help regulate energy balance and protecting vital organs from shock?
a. epithelial
b. adipose
c. connective
d. nervous
e. muscle