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1
__________ is a universal standard that allows various digital imaging devices to work together in a network no matter who the manufacturer is
DICOM
2
The graphic display for the distribution of pixel values ________
Histogram
3
T/F. DR systems as opposed to CR systems are considered indirect capture
False
4
T/F. The DQE is higher for DR when comparing to CR.
false
5

T/F. Digital imaging processing refers to computer manipulation applied to digital images
True
6
An array of numbers arranged in grid and rows is called?
matrix
7
Because of improved contrast resolution CT is able to differentiate tissues with ___________
Similar densities
8
Contrast is adjusted by window changes, WW, WL. Window width determines ___________ contrast number of grey levels
Displayed
9

Window Level determines _________
Brightness
10
Decreasing the signal to noise ratio (SNR) will increase image quality.
False
11
The measured x-ray transmission values are__________
Raw Data
12
The gray scale on the doctor’s monitor is much ________ than the one on the x-ray floor.
Longer
13
T/F. Direct digital Radiography flat panel thin film transistor (TFT) can be indirect or direct capture.
True
14
2 Trauma Guidelines –
Do Not move patient
Minimum of 2 views of each body part at 90o angle to each other
15
Extreme eversion of the foot is a sign of traumatic injury to the ________
Hip (Fracture)
16
Which position is recommended for a mobile AP chest x-ray of a critically ill patient?
Supine
17
is passed through the nose to the stomach, allowing food and medications to travel to the stomach.
Nasogastric Tube (NG)
18
Radiographic examination of the uterus and the uterine tubes is termed_______?
Hysterosalpingogram
19
central line is placed in the large vein in the chest, neck or groin called?
Central Venous Catheter
20
which vein/ artery used for central venous lines
Internal juglar vein or subclavian artery
21
Which exam is preformed 3 months after insertion of an IUD to determine effective uterine tube occlusion.
Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
22
T/F. Exposure field recognition needs specific collimated border, otherwise there will be a poor quality image.
True
23
T/F. Automatic re-scaling makes data output and data display consistent even when there are errors of exposure.
True
24
Anode heel effect is more noticeable in mobile radiography because of _______
Short SID/ Wide Field size
25
Increased exposure over time is__________?
Dose Creep
26
During operative cholangiogram with contrast into the biliary system, what projections are used?
AP/RPO
27
T/F. When taking a portable chest x-ray on a patient receiving O2 therapy its safe to remove O2 during set up and exposure?
False
28
A swan Gantz Catheter measures?
Pulmonary Pressure (right Vent)
29
Ideal location for an endotracheal tube is _________?
1-2" above carina
30
The preferred location of a central venous line tip is the ________?
Superior vena cava
31
What is the most common complication associated with CV line placement?
Pneumothorax or Hemothorax
32
To relieve a large pneumothorax what tubes do we insert in the patient?
Chest Tube (Thoracostomy Tube)
33
T/F. Your responsibility as a radiographer is to reattach the catheter line?
False
34
T/F. Cholecystectomy can be done during ERCP?
False
35
At what vertebral level should the tip of the endotracheal tube be placed?
T4
36
An ICU patient with right pleural effusion which exam is appropriate to do
Right Lateral Decub
37
How often should CR PSP be erased?
Everyday
38
T/F. High SNR is desirable in digital environment?
True
39

Digital format that is standard for electronic images?
Dicom
40
T/F. Does automatic re-scaling of the histogram compensate for under and over exposure, thus leading to quality images?
true
41
Where is the latent image in the CR formed?
PSP photosimulable Phosphorus
42
Mathematical formulas for digital images reconstruction of specific exams are
Processing algorithms
43
The modality worklist is a function enabled by the________?
RIS
44
__________ is the numeric value representative of the exposure that the IR received?
Exposure Index
45
Subtraction, edge enhancement and annotation are known as?
Post Processing Techniques
46
T/F. Fim screen, CR, DR can be used for mobile portable radiography?
True
47
The “S” value is used to represent?
EI value
48
T/F. The image looks different in the doctor’s screen than the floor screen because it has more pixels.
True
49
T/F. Changing sampling frequency affects the spatial resolution of the digital image.
True
50
Swan Gantz catheterization goes where and what function
Right side of the heart and arteries into the lungs
Measures function of the heart, blood flow and pressure in and around the heart
51
Contrast is adjusted by windowing, changing WL and WW. Window level determines the________?
midpoint gray range
52
The central ray must be centered within how many inches of the midline of the IR?
1.5 inches
53
Most grids used for mobile radiography have a ratio of?
6:1 or 8:1 (8:1 is the most common)
54
To keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography the recommended SID is?
40 inches
55
Name 3 items that should be on a every mobile radiography machine?
Technique Chart
Measuring Calipers
Lead Aprons
56
During mobile exposure the radiographer should be how far away from the tube?
6 Ft
57
During mobile radiography the least amount of radiation is found at?
90 degrees
58
According to the federal regulation source to skin distance (SSD) during mobile radiography may not be less than _____ inches?
12 in
59
How long should a patient lie in position for a lateral decubitus exam before taking the image?
5 min
60
Which position is recommended for a mobile chest exam on a critically ill patient?
Supine
61
T/F. Increased scatter will result if the grid IR is leaning on the mobile study during a lateral decubitus exam of a chest or abdomen?
False
62
T/F. The generators used for mobile x-ray units have the same kilowattage rating as stationary x-ray units?
False
63
T/F. Mobile radiography units can have direct digital capabilities when wired or wireless?
False
64
T/F. Scattered and leakage radiation are much lower energy than that of the primary bream?
True
65

In general, during fluoro exams the preferred technique is?
Low mAs and high kVp
66
The biological effects of radiation are known to be influenced by ?
Maturation and proliferation
67
Skin exposure __________ as the kilovoltage peak _________ and the milliamperage seconds _______?
Decrease, increase, decrease
68
What is the greatest contribution of unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient?
Fail to collimate
69
T/F. The California Radiation Control Regulations define dose to mean radiation absorbed per unit mass. Whole body dose means exposure to major portions of the body, trunk and lens
True
70
Must be posted where x-rays are taken?
Each x-ray supervisor and operator permits
Each certified radiologic operator permit
Radiologic health dept form, RH2364 notice of employees
71
According to the California Radiation Control Regulations, what is not defined as occupational dose?
Dose received for ones own medical or dental diagnosis
72
In radiography where dose the major source of secondary radiation come from?
The Patient
73
T/F. For fluoro system occupied with an Automatic Brightness Control (ABC) mechanism and where the x-ray tube is fixed below the table, moving the image intensifier away from the patient, will reduce patient dose.
False
74
If the exposure area is doubled by opening the collimation patient dose will?
Double
75
What is the term for the ability of the human eye to perceive detail.
Visual acuity
76
According to California Radiation Control Regulations, how long must individual radiation monitoring records be preserved by an employer?
Indefinitely
77
The California Radiation Control Regulations require that protective aprons used during fluoroscopy shall be of at least______?
.25mm of lead equivelant
78

What is the function of ABC or AEC mechanism in an image intensifier fluoroscopic system?
Maintaining density throughout varying densities
79

T/F. The California Radiation Control Regulations require record keeping regarding results of require calibration, survey and testing each receipt, transfer and disposal of x-ray unit machines radiation exposure of all individual for whom personal monitoring is required.
True
80
What is the Half Value Layer?

The thickness of a substance which reduces the exposure rate of the primary beam by half.
81
Which cells are most sensitive to radiation
Lymphatic
82
Where is the contrast medium injected for a myelogram?
Lumbar Spine L2-L3 or L3-L4
83
What patient position is used post myelography during recovery.
Lumbar Spine L2-L3 or L3-L4
84

What patient position is used post myelography during recovery.
Head and shoulder elevated 30-45 degrees
85

How is the patient head positioned during myelogram to prevent contrast passing into the vertebral ventricles?
Acute Extension
86
T/F. The salivary glands produce 1 liter of saliva per day?
True
87
Facet injections, nerve root blocks, and epidural steroid injections are all types of ________ procedures?
Pain Management
88
Which structure is air filled on double contrast image of the stomach obtained in the PA oblique projection, RAO position?
Fundus
89
Which methods are used to administer barium for a radiographic examination of the small intestines?
Orally
Reflux filling (BE)
Enteroclysis
90
Two advantages of using the recumbent position for images of the esophagus?
Proximal portion more completely filled with contrast
Varices fill better with contrast
91

PSP technology commonly refers to which modality
CR
92
The __________ is coated with light emitting crystals to absorb electrons and emit light?
Outer Phosphor
93
__________ and ________ projections are performed during myelography?
PA and Lateral decub
94
The brain and the spinal cord are enclosed by 3 protective membranes called the?
Meninges
95
The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the _____?
Vertebrae
96
T/F. Lead aprons improved in the 1940’s?
True
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