quiz 1

164 flashcardsby illegit
Study these flashcardsFree · spaced repetition · iPhone, Android, Mac & web

All cards

1
The prediction of the course and end of a disease and an outlook based on that prediction best define its:
a. Diagnosis
b. Etiology
c. Prognosis
d. Syndrome
Prognosis
2
A compression fracture of the lumbar spine that results from steroid treatments for pain reduction of arthritis would be an example of _______ disease.
a. Degenerative
b. Iatrogenic
c. Idiopathic
d. Traumatic
Latrogenic
3
A disease such as Tay-Sachs syndrome that is transmitted genetically is termed:
a. Congenital
b. Hereditary
c. Metabolic
d. Neoplastic
Hereditary
4
Sickness sufficient to interfere with one's normal daily routine refers to its:
a. Etiology
b. Morbidity
c. Mortality
d. Pathogenesis
Morbidity
5
Which of the following would be considered a symptom of a disease process?
a. Bloody stool
b. Nausea
c. Skin rash
d. Swelling
Nausea
6
A disease that manifests slowly and is present for a long period is said to be:
a. Acute
b. Asymptomatic
c. Chronic
d. Congenital
Chronic
7
Which of the following disease classifications is usually associated with the normal aging process?
a. Congenital
b. Degenerative
c. Inflammatory
d. Metabolic
Degenerative
8
If 4000 cases of a given disease are found in a given population, the _______ of the disease is defined.
a. Incidence
b. Morphology
c. Metabolism
d. Prevalence
Prevalence
9
The relative ease with which an organism can overcome normal bodily defenses refers to its:
a. Infection
b. Necrosis
c. Pestilence
d. Virulence
Virulence
10
A neoplastic growth is evaluated to determine its degree of histologic differentiation. This is termed:
a. Grading
b. Metastasis
c. Morphology
d. Staging
Grading
11
Generalized increase in cell size refers to:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Atrophy
c. Metaplasia
d. Hyperplasia
Hypertrophy
12
Which of the following terms refers to abnormal changes of mature cells?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Dysplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Hyperplasia
Dysplasia
13
Explain the concept of neoplastic disease. Are all neoplasms cancer?
A neoplasm or neoplastic disease is new, abnormal tissue growth resulting from mutations within the chromosomes of the cell (genetic instability). Classification of the neoplasm depends on the tissue type of the tumor. Neoplasms can be benign or malignant. Only malignant neoplasms are cancer.
14
What is the difference between mortality and morbidity rate? How is each important to the practice of medicine and to public health agencies?
The mortality rate is the average number of deaths caused by a particular disease in a population. Monitoring and reporting mortality rates provides the leading causes of death according to gender, race, age, and specific causes of death such as heart disease or malignant neoplasia. Trends in these mortality patterns are identified by age, gender, and ethnic origin and tracked to help identify necessary interventions. The morbidity rate is the incidence of sickness sufficient to interfere with an individual's normal daily routine. Tracking the morbidity rate helps to monitor prevalent illnesses in a particular population or geographic areas.
15
Differentiate between an acute and chronic illness. Give two examples of each.
Acute diseases usually have a quick onset and last for a short period, whereas chronic diseases may manifest more slowly and last for a very long time. Examples of acute illnesses are pneumonia or influenza, whereas examples of chronic illnesses are chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or multiple myeloma.
16
What is pathology?
study of disease
17
What is a disease?
any abnormal disturbance of the function or structure of the human body as a result of some type of injury.
18
What is pathogenesis?
he sequence of events producing cellular changes that ultimately lead to observable changes know as Manifestations
19
What is a symptom?
subjective sensation that the person feels from the disorder
20
What is a sign?
An objective manifestation that can be detected by the physician
21
What is etiology?
the study of the cause of disease
22
What is nosocomial?
hospital acquired infection
23
What is latrogenic?
adverse responses to medical treatment.
24
What is idiopathic?
cause of disease is unknown
25
What is an acute disease?
usually has a quick onset, last a short period
26
What is chronic disease?
may comes on slowly, lasts long time
27
What is sequelae condition?
a condition caused by previously acquired disease.
28
What is the term diagnosis?
identification of a disease
29
What is the term prognosis?
predicted course and outcome
30
What is morphology?
The structure of cells or tissue
31
What is Subtractive/lytic/destructive?
Require decrease in exposure technique
"ex"- Emphysema
32
what is Additive/sclerotic?
Require increase in exposure technique
"ex"- pneumonia
33
What is Epidiomology
investigation of disease in large groups.
34
what is prevalence?
number of cases found in a given population.
35
What is incidence?
number of new cases found in a given population
36
What is endemic?
disease of high prevalence in an area where a given causative organism is commonly found .
37
what is epidemic?
a rapid, widespread occurrence in a large number of people in a population.
38
what is a pandemic?
an epidemic affecting the majority of a population of a large region or an epidemic occurring at the same time in many different parts of the world.
39
What is mortality rate?
average number of deaths caused by a disease in a population
40
what does NCHS stand for and what does it mean?
National Center for Health Statistics and its the centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
41
What is morbidity rate?
the incidence of sickness sufficient to interfere with an individual's normal daily routine
42
What is the genome of an organism?
With the exception of reproductive (germ) cells, each cell in the human body contains 22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes, two sex chromosomes (XX or XY), and the small chromosome found in each mitochondria within the cell.
43
What do physical maps determine?
they determine the physical location of a particular gene on a specific chromosome.
44
What do genetic maps do?
they assign the distance between genetic markers, linking DNA fragments to a specific chromosome.
45
what is a single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
Variations in the DNA sequence due to the change of a single nitrogen base.
46
What is a haplotype?
comprises closely linked SNPs on a single chromosome, and it is a very important resource in identifying specific DNA sequences that affect disease, response to pharmaceuticals, and response to environmental factors.
47
What is atrophy?
decrease in cell size
48
What is hypertrophy?
increase in cell size
49
What is hyperplasia?
increase in number of cells
50
What is metaplasia?
conversion to another cell type that is not normal.
51
what is dysplasia?
change in mature cells that is not normal. Precancerous.
52
what is congenital?
Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors.
53
What is heredity?
Diseases caused by developmental disorders genetically transmitted from either parent to a child.
54
What is autosomal?
abnormality present on one of the 22 non-sex chromosomes
55
what is inflammatory?
Disease that results from the body's reaction to a localized injurious agent
56
what is an autoimmune disorder?
Disease in which the body forms antibodies that injure patient's own tissues
57
What does infection mean?
refers to an inflammatory process caused by a disease-causing organism
58
What does virulence mean?
the ease with which an organism can cause disease.
59
what does degenerative mean?
Disease caused by a deterioration of the body
60
what is metabolism?
The sum of all physical and chemical processes int he body
61
what is metabolic syndrome?
Disease caused by the disturbance of the normal physiologic function of the body
62
what is traumatic disease?
Disease that may result from mechanical forces such as crushing or twisting of a body part or from the effects of ionizing radiation on the body
63
What is a neoplastic disease?
disease that results in new, abnormal tissue growth
64
what is Benign neoplasm?
composed of well-differentiated cells with uncontrolled growth "BE NICE"
65
what is Malignant neoplasm?
grow fast, spread and invade
66
what is Metastatic spread?
Bacteria is distributed around the body through the blood stream.
67
What is hematogenous spread?
spread through the blood
68
what is Lymphatic spread?
neoplasm drains to the sentinel node
69
what is Invasion?
if the cancerous cells spread into surrounding tissues by virtue "of proximity"
70
what does seeding mean?
travel to distant site or organ system
71
what is a lesion?
cellular changes that may occur in response to diseases.
72
what is cancer?
general term refers to many types of malignant neoplasms
73
what is a carcinoma?
derived from epithelial tissue
74
what are sarcomas?
connective tissue cancers
75
What is leukemia?
A cancer of white blood cells/leukocytes.
76
What is lymphoma?
cancer of the lymph nodes
77
what is TNM?
tumor-node-metastasis
78
What are the various agents that can induce cell necrosis?
The various agents that can induce cell necrosis are local and systemic effects.
79
what is Excess mortality?
Excess mortality is used with the public health to determine the number of deaths that have occurred and the causes from these deaths
80
Under what conditions might a Rad Tech have an encounter with a Sickle Cell patient?
The conditions where a Rad Tech might have an encounter with a sickle cell patient is either in X-ray, MRI, CT or in ultrasound. Some sickle cell can be diagnosed or monitored with either of these imaging test.
81
Specialized cells responsible for the absorption of bone tissue during growth and healing are termed:
a. Chondroblasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts
d. Both b and c
Osteoclasts
82
A firm, immovable joint is classified as:
a. Amphiarthrodial
b. Diarthrodial
c. Synarthrodial
d. Triarthrodial
Synarthrodial
83
The medullary cavity is made up of:
a. Cancellous bone
b. Compact bone
c. Trabeculae
d. Cortical bone
Cancellous bone
84
The growth zone of a lone bone is referred to as the:
a. Epiphysis
b. Diaphysis
c. Diploë
d. Metaphysis
Metaphysis
85
What is the most common primary bone malignancy found in children and adolescents?
a. Giant cell tumor
b. Osteoid osteoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Osteochondroma
Osteosarcoma
86
The most common inherited disorder that results in dwarfism is:
a. Osteogenesis
b. Albers-Schönberg disease
c. Spina bifida imperfecta
d. Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia
87
A variant of rheumatoid arthritis associated with pain, swelling, and stiffness in people under 16 years old is:
a. Juvenile arthritis
b. Psoriatic arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Reiter syndrome
Juvenile arthritis
88
A congenital malformation of the foot characterized by a plantar flexion deformity is termed:
a. Adactyly
b. Polydactyly
c. Syndactyly
d. Talipes equinovarus
Talipes equinovarus
89
An abnormal lateral deviation of the spine is referred to as:
a. Scoliosis
b. Klippel-Feil syndrome
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Achondroplasia
Scoliosis
90
An infectious disease of the skeletal system is:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Klippel-Feil syndrome
Osteomyelitis
91
Osteoarthritis affects the weight-bearing joints within the body and may be treated with:
a. Exercise
b. Medication
c. Surgery
d. All of the above
All of the above
92
The type of arthritis characterized by the presence of Heberden nodes is:
a. Bursitis
b. Gout
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteoarthritis
93
A malformation of the acetabulum which causes the femoral head to be displaced is termed:
a. Avascular necrosis
b. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
c. Talipes equinovarus
d. Craniotubular dysplasias
Developmental dysplasia of the hip
94
The most common benign bone tumor is:
a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Osteochondroma
c. Enchondroma
d. Osteoma
Osteochondroma
95
All of the following are malignant neoplasms of the skeletal system except:
a. Enchondroma
b. Ewing sarcoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Multiple myeloma
Enchondroma
96
A 60-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and decreased range of motion in his left knee. His pain is worse in the morning and improves with movement. If you were this patient's physician, what imaging test might you order, and why?
MRI is extremely useful in the evaluation of joints, particularly the knee and the shoulder, particularly in providing soft tissue detail because of its superior contrast resolution and ability to image in multiple planes.
97
A 2-month-old female is brought to her pediatrician's office with complaints of clicking and laxity in her right hip. What might be the initial suspicion, and what diagnostic procedure(s) might be ordered?
The condition is most likely developmental dysplasia of the hip. Sonography may be used to diagnose this anomaly early in life through visualization of the cartilaginous structures of the hip. Conventional radiographs of the hip are often difficult to interpret in the neonate.
98
How may CT and MRI be used to complement skeletal radiography in the diagnosis and treatment of enchondroma?
CT and MRI are useful in distinguishing enchondromas from chondrosarcomas and both modalities may be used to guide a biopsy of the neoplasm.
99
A 75-year-old male patient presents to his physician's office with increasing low back pain. He has a prior history of colon cancer, which was treated 8 months ago with surgery and chemotherapy. What might be the initial suspicion, and what radiologic procedure(s) should be performed?
The spine is the most common site for bone metastasis to occur, accounting for approximately 40% of all metastatic lesions. CT is often employed, especially for imaging the spine and MRI may also be used to differentiate between tumor tissue and normal bone marrow. Recently whole body FDG-PET, whole body MRI, MRI-PET, and CT-PET have been advocated for imaging metastatic disease.
100
In diagnosing bone tumors, what are some of the characteristics taken into consideration?
Primary bone tumors are more common in children than in adults, and metastatic bone lesions far outnumber the incidence of primary bone neoplasms in the adult. The most common benign tumors are osteoma, osteochondroma, and giant cell tumor. The primary malignant bone tumors are osteosarcoma, Ewing's sarcoma, and multiple myeloma. The diagnosis of a bone abnormality is often made radiographically on the basis of the individual's age, the pattern of bone destruction, the location of the tumor, and the tumor's position within the bone.
101
What is achondroplasia?
A hereditary, congenital disturbance that causes inadequate bone formation and results in a peculiar form of dwarfism
102
What is Albers-Schonberg disease?
A form of osteosclerotic osteopetrosis
103
a benign skeletal anomaly that involves increased bone density in conjunction with fairly normal bone contour
104
What is anencephaly?
Congenital absence of the cranial vault
105
What is aneurysmal bone cyst?
A solitary benign osteoplastic serum or blood-filled lesion of the bone
106
What is anklosing spondylitis?
A form of rheumatoid arthritis of unknown cause that affects the spine in a progressive fashion, eventually fusing the spine into a rigid block of bone
107
What is arthritis?
Inflammation in which lesions are confined to the joints
108
What is bursitis?
inflammation of a bursa
109
What is cancellous bone?
Bone that has a spongy, lattice-like structure filled with bone marrow
110
What is a chondrosarcoma?
A malignant bone tumor composed of atypical cartilage
111
What is clubfoot?
complex deformity of the ankle and foot
112
What is compact bone?
Dense, outer portion of bone
113
What is craniosynostosis?
Premature or early closure of the sutures of the skull
114
What is craniotubular dysplasias?
An overgrowth of bone of the face and skull, resulting in sclerosis and major skeletal deformities
115
what is development dysplasia of the HIP?
Abnormal tissue development
116
What is the diaphysis?
Shaft of a long bone
117
what is dipole?
The spongy bone tissue found between the two tables of the cranial bones
118
What is enchondroma?
A benign growth of cartilage arising in the metaphysis of a bone
119
what is epiphysis?
An ossification or growth center in the bones of children
120
What is Escherichia coli?
A gram-negative bacterium found in the large intestine that may produce a toxin causing intestinal illness
121
what is Ewing sarcoma?
A primary malignant bone tumor arising in medullary tissue, occurring more often in cylindric bones
122
what is exostoses?
A benign bone growth projecting outward from the bony cortex
123
what is fibrous dysplasia?
A bone disorder in which fibrous tissue develops instead of bone tissue
124
What is a ganglion?
Cystic swelling that develops in connection with a tendon sheath, usually on the back of the wrist
125
what is a giant cell tumor?
A neoplastic growth of the skeletal system consisting of numerous multinucleated osteoclastic giant cells
126
also known as an osteoclastoma
127
What is gouty arthritis?
An inherited metabolic disorder with excess amounts of uric acid produced and deposited in the joint and adjacent bone, most commonly in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe
128
what is hyperostosis frontalis interna?
A thickening of the inner side of the frontal bone as a result of a benign tumor
129
What is involucrum?
A shell or sheath of new supporting bone laid down by periosteum around a sequestrum of necrosed bone
130
What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
A form of arthritis causing joint inflammation and stiffness affecting individuals under 16 years of age
131
What is Klippel-Feil syndrome?
A congenital condition resulting in fusion of the cervical spine
132
What is the medullary cavity?
Inner spongy or cancellous portion of a long bone where bone marrow is produced
133
What is the metaphysis?
The growing portion of bone
134
What is osteoarthritis?
degenerative joint disease
135
What is osteoblastoma?
tumors of the bone arising from osteoblasts
136
What is osteoblast?
bone forming cells
137
What is osteochondroma?
a primary benign bone tumor characterized by overgrowth of cartilage and bone near end of the bone at the growth plate.
138
What is osteoclastoma?
Giant cell tumor
139
What is osteoclasts?
cells that are associated with absorption and removal of the bone
140
What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
brittle bone disease
141
What is osteoma?
benign tumor of bone
142
What is osteomyelitis?
infection of the bone
143
What is osteopetrosis also known as?
marble bone disease
144
what is osteophytes?
bone spurs
145
What is osteosarcoma?
146
What is the periosteum?
the tough membrane that covers the outside of the bone
147
What is polydactyly?
extra fingers or toes
148
What is Pott's disease?
tuberculosis of the spine
149
What is psoriatic arthritis?
joint pain and stiffness associated with psoriasis
150
what is reactive arthritis?
Joint pain and swelling triggered by an infection in another part of the body
151
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
a chronic progressive disease causing inflammation in the joints and resulting in painful deformity and immobility, especially in the fingers, wrists, feet, and ankles.
152
What is Scheuermann's disease?
a growth condition causing kyphosis of the thoracic spine
153
What is scoliosis?
lateral curvature of the spine
154
What is a sequestrum?
piece of dead bone
155
what is simple unicameral bone cyst
a benign fluid-filled bone neoplasm
156
What is spina bifida?
A birth defect in which a developing baby's spinal cord fails to develop properly.
157
What is Staphylococcus aureus?
a common bacteria found on the skin
158
What is syndactyly?
fused digits
159
What is tendonitis?
inflammation of a tendon
160
What is tenosynovitis?
inflammation of a tendon sheath
161
What is trabeculae?
the spongy substance found within a bone, it gives a characteristic appearance to bone details
162
what is trabecular pattern?
The arrangement of supportive strands of connective tissue of the alveolar bone in relation to the bone marrow spaces within the cancellous bone
163
what is transitional vertebra?
a vertebra that assumes the characteristics of the vertebrae on each side of a major spine division.
164
what is tuberculosis of the bone and joint?
any of the infectious diseases of man and animals caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis, generally affecting the lungs.
Study all 164 cards for free