NEURO TRY MULTIPLE CHOICE

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1
What cranial nerve is affected in Trigeminal Neuralgia? A) CN III B) CN V C) CN VII D) CN X
  • B) CN V
2
What is another name for Trigeminal Neuralgia? A) Paralysis Agitans B) Disseminated Sclerosis C) Tic Douloureux D) Acute Polyneuritis
C) Tic Douloureux
3
What type of pain is characteristic of Trigeminal Neuralgia? A) Dull ache B) Burning pain C) Sudden severe shooting pain D) Cramping pain
C) Sudden severe shooting pain
4
What is the drug of choice for Trigeminal Neuralgia? A) Riluzole B) Carbamazepine C) Pyridostigmine D) Levodopa
B) Carbamazepine
5
What serious adverse effect is associated with Carbamazepine? A) Bradycardia B) Agranulocytosis C) Hypertension D) Hyperglycemia
B) Agranulocytosis
6
Which symptoms may indicate agranulocytosis? A) Nausea and vomiting B) Headache and dizziness C) Sore throat and fever D) Blurred vision and tinnitus
C) Sore throat and fever
7
What laboratory test should be monitored during Carbamazepine therapy? A) ABG B) CBC C) ECG D) Urinalysis
B) CBC
8
What surgery is the surgery of choice for Trigeminal Neuralgia? A) Thymectomy B) Craniotomy C) Deep Brain Stimulation D) Retrogasserian Rhizotomy
D) Retrogasserian Rhizotomy
9
Which function is controlled by CN V? A) Hearing B) Facial sensation C) Smell D) Vision
B) Facial sensation
10
Which population is most commonly affected by Trigeminal Neuralgia? A) Elderly women B) Children C) Young men D) Newborns
A) Elderly women
11
What cranial nerve is affected in Bell's Palsy? A) CN III B) CN V C) CN VII D) CN XII
C) CN VII
12
Bell's Palsy causes what condition? A) Permanent paralysis B) Temporary facial paralysis C) Lower limb paralysis D) Spastic paralysis
B) Temporary facial paralysis
13
What is the average recovery time for Bell's Palsy? A) 1–2 days B) 1 year C) 3–5 weeks D) 6 months
C) 3–5 weeks
14
What assessment finding is characteristic of Bell's Palsy? A) Facial asymmetry B) Muscle rigidity C) Resting tremor D) Ataxia
A) Facial asymmetry
15
What is the leading risk factor for Bell's Palsy? A) Trauma B) Autoimmune disorder C) Diabetes D) Smoking
B) Autoimmune disorder
16
What eye complication commonly occurs in Bell's Palsy? A) Cataract B) Corneal dryness C) Glaucoma D) Retinal detachment
B) Corneal dryness
17
What reflex is often lost in Bell's Palsy? A) Gag reflex B) Corneal reflex C) Blink reflex D) Babinski reflex
C) Blink reflex
18
Loss of taste occurs in what part of the tongue in Bell's Palsy? A) Posterior 1/3 B) Entire tongue C) Anterior 2/3 D) Tongue tip only
C) Anterior 2/3
19
What medication class is commonly prescribed for Bell's Palsy? A) Anticoagulants B) Corticosteroids C) Beta blockers D) Antipsychotics
B) Corticosteroids
20
Why are artificial tears used in Bell's Palsy? A) Improve vision B) Prevent corneal drying C) Reduce eye pressure D) Dilate pupils
B) Prevent corneal drying
21
What neurotransmitter receptor is damaged in Myasthenia Gravis? A) Dopamine receptor B) Serotonin receptor C) Acetylcholine receptor D) GABA receptor
C) Acetylcholine receptor
22
What is the leading cause of Myasthenia Gravis? A) Trauma B) Autoimmune destruction of ACh receptors C) Infection D) Genetics
B) Autoimmune destruction of ACh receptors
23
What pattern of weakness occurs in Myasthenia Gravis? A) Ascending B) Descending C) Alternating D) Unilateral
B) Descending
24
What is the best diagnostic test for Myasthenia Gravis? A) MRI B) EMG C) Tensilon Test D) CBC
C) Tensilon Test
25
What drug is used during the Tensilon Test? A) Atropine B) Endrophonium C) Levodopa D) Riluzole
B) Endrophonium
26
What is usually the earliest manifestation of Myasthenia Gravis? A) Ptosis B) Tremor C) Paralysis D) Rigidity
A) Ptosis
27
What visual symptom is common in Myasthenia Gravis? A) Blindness B) Diplopia C) Scotoma D) Nystagmus
B) Diplopia
28
What is the priority complication of Myasthenia Gravis? A) Constipation B) Respiratory failure C) Urinary retention D) Seizure
B) Respiratory failure
29
What procedure removes excess antibodies in Myasthenia Gravis? A) Dialysis B) Bronchoscopy C) Plasmapheresis D) Endoscopy
C) Plasmapheresis
30
What is the surgery of choice for Myasthenia Gravis? A) Lobectomy B) Rhizotomy C) Thymectomy D) Craniectomy
C) Thymectomy
31
What is the leading cause of Myasthenic Crisis? A) Overdose of stigmine B) Underdose of stigmine C) Viral infection D) Trauma
B) Underdose of stigmine
32
What is the leading cause of Cholinergic Crisis? A) Autoimmune disease B) Underdose of stigmine C) Overdose of stigmine D) Genetics
C) Overdose of stigmine
33
What medication is used to treat Cholinergic Crisis? A) Atropine Sulfate B) Carbamazepine C) Levodopa D) Riluzole
A) Atropine Sulfate
34
What happens when Tensilon is given during Cholinergic Crisis? A) Symptoms improve B) Symptoms disappear C) Symptoms worsen D) No effect
C) Symptoms worsen
35
What medication is used as emergency treatment for Myasthenic Crisis? A) Endrophonium (Tensilon) B) Levodopa C) Riluzole D) Baclofen
A) Endrophonium (Tensilon)
36
What is another name for ALS? A) Disseminated Sclerosis B) Lou Gehrig's Disease C) Paralysis Agitans D) Tic Douloureux
B) Lou Gehrig's Disease
37
ALS is classified as what type of disorder? A) PNS B) Musculoskeletal C) CNS D) Endocrine
C) CNS
38
What pattern of weakness occurs in ALS? A) Descending B) Ascending C) Unilateral D) Flaccid
B) Ascending
39
Is ALS curable? A) Yes B) Usually C) No D) Sometimes
C) No
40
What neurotransmitter becomes neurotoxic when elevated in ALS? A) Dopamine B) Serotonin C) GABA D) Glutamate
D) Glutamate
41
What involuntary muscle movement is common in ALS? A) Tremor B) Fasciculation C) Spasticity D) Rigidity
B) Fasciculation
42
What is the priority complication of ALS? A) Pneumonia B) Respiratory failure C) Stroke D) Renal failure
B) Respiratory failure
43
What is the drug of choice for ALS? A) Pyridostigmine B) Carbamazepine C) Riluzole D) Levodopa
C) Riluzole
44
What is the hallmark pathology of Multiple Sclerosis? A) Demyelination B) Muscle atrophy C) Bone degeneration D) Hemorrhage
A) Demyelination
45
Multiple Sclerosis affects which system? A) PNS B) CNS C) Cardiovascular D) Endocrine
B) CNS
46
What is the leading cause of Multiple Sclerosis? A) Autoimmune disease B) Trauma C) Diabetes D) Smoking
A) Autoimmune disease
47
Which finding is part of Charcot's Triad? A) Ptosis B) Nystagmus C) Pill-rolling tremor D) Drooling
B) Nystagmus
48
Which finding is part of Charcot's Triad? A) Intentional tremor B) Rigidity C) Fasciculation D) Bradykinesia
A) Intentional tremor
49
What is the confirmatory test for Multiple Sclerosis? A) CT Scan B) PET Scan C) MRI D) X-ray
C) MRI
50
What is the drug of choice during acute exacerbations of Multiple Sclerosis? A) Corticosteroids B) Levodopa C) Pyridostigmine D) Atropine
A) Corticosteroids
51
Which medication delays progression of Multiple Sclerosis? A) Avonex B) Carbamazepine C) Baclofen D) Riluzole
A) Avonex
52
What is another name for Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) Paralysis Agitans B) Acute Polyneuritis C) Tic Douloureux D) Lou Gehrig's Disease
B) Acute Polyneuritis
53
Guillain-Barré Syndrome affects which system? A) CNS B) PNS C) Endocrine D) Musculoskeletal
B) PNS
54
What pattern of paralysis occurs in Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) Descending B) Ascending C) Intermittent D) Unilateral
B) Ascending
55
What is usually the first symptom of Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) Paresthesia of lower extremities B) Tremor C) Ptosis D) Seizure
A) Paresthesia of lower extremities
56
What happens to deep tendon reflexes in Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) Increase B) Become hyperactive C) Decrease or disappear D) Remain normal
C) Decrease or disappear
57
What is the priority complication of Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) Respiratory failure B) Seizure C) Stroke D) Renal failure
A) Respiratory failure
58
What is the best diagnostic test for Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) MRI B) ECG C) EEG D) ABG
A) MRI
59
What treatment removes antibodies in Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A) Hemodialysis B) Plasmapheresis C) Thoracentesis D) Paracentesis
B) Plasmapheresis
60
What is the old name of Parkinson's Disease? A) Lou Gehrig's Disease B) Paralysis Agitans C) Acute Polyneuritis D) Tic Douloureux
B) Paralysis Agitans
61
What neurotransmitter deficiency occurs in Parkinson's Disease? A) Acetylcholine B) Serotonin C) Dopamine D) GABA
C) Dopamine
62
What is the earliest manifestation of Parkinson's Disease? A) Rigidity B) Resting pill-rolling tremor C) Dementia D) Drooling
B) Resting pill-rolling tremor
63
What term means slow movement? A) Akinesia B) Bradykinesia C) Ataxia D) Dysphagia
B) Bradykinesia
64
What gait is characteristic of Parkinson's Disease? A) Scissoring gait B) Ataxic gait C) Shuffling gait D) Steppage gait
C) Shuffling gait
65
What posture is characteristic of Parkinson's Disease? A) Lordotic B) Kyphotic C) Stooped posture D) Upright posture
C) Stooped posture
66
What laboratory finding supports Parkinson's Disease? A) High dopamine level B) Low dopamine level C) High ESR D) Low WBC
B) Low dopamine level
67
What is the drug of choice for Parkinson's Disease? A) Carbamazepine B) Levodopa-Carbidopa C) Pyridostigmine D) Riluzole
B) Levodopa-Carbidopa
68
What is the surgery of choice for advanced Parkinson's Disease? A) Thymectomy B) Rhizotomy C) Deep Brain Stimulation D) Lobectomy
C) Deep Brain Stimulation
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