1What does the CNS consist of?
Brain and spinal cord
2What does the PNS consist of?
The somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system
3What two types of neurons does the SNS contain?
Sensory and motor
4What is the role of sensory neurons in the SNS?
Take impulses from sense organs to the CNS
5What is the role of motor neurons in the SNS?
Take impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands.
6What systems does the ANS consist of?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic
7The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are (BLANK) to each other
Antagonistic
8How does the sympathetic system affect heart rate, breathing rate, peristalsis and intestinal secretions?
Speed up heart rate
Speeds up breathing rate
Slows down peristalsis
Slows down the production of intestinal secretions
9How does the parasympathetic system affect heart rate, breathing rate, peristalsis and intestinal secretions?
Slows down heart rate
Slows down breathing rate
Speeds up intestinal secretions
Speeds up the production of intestinal secretions
10What occurs in a converging neural pathway?
Impulses from several neurons travel to one neuron
11What is the purpose of a converging neural pathway?
Increases the sensitivity to excitatory or inhibitory signals
12What occurs in a diverging neural pathway?
Impulses from one neuron travel to several neurons
13What is the purpose of a diverging neural pathway?
It can affect more than one destination at the same time
14What occurs in a reverberating neural pathway?
Neurons later in the pathway link with earlier neurons sending the impulse back through the pathway
15What is the purpose of a reverberating neural pathway?
Allows for repeated stimulation of the pathway
16What are the three roles of the cerebral cortex?
Centre of conscious thought
Recalls memories
Alters behaviour in the light of experience
17Specific locations within the cerebral cortex complete particular functions, what is the term for this process?
Localisation of brain functions
18What are the three different areas in the cerebral cortex?
Sensory areas
Motor areas
Association areas
19There are different association areas involved in...
language processing
imagination
personality
intelligence
20Information from one side of the body is processed in...
The opposite side of the cerebrum
21What does the transfer of information between cerebral hemispheres occur through?
The corpus callosum
22What is the corpus callosum?
A bundle of nerves connecting the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.
23What three processes does memory involve?
encoding
storage
retrieval of information
24What do memories include?
Past experience
knowledge
Thoughts
25What does sensory memory retain?
All the visual and auditory input received for a few seconds
26What is encoded into short term memory?
Selected images and sounds
27STM has a limitednlimited capacity, what does this mean
It has a limited capacity and holds information for a short time
28What is memory span?
The number of items which a person can retain and recall in STM.
29What is the serial position effect?
The tendency of a person to recall the first and last items in a series best, and the middle items worst
30What is the effect of maintaining items by rehearsal?
A piece of information is repeated to retain it in STM long enough to complete a task
31What are the two ways memories are lost from our STM?
Displacement
Decay
32How are memories lost from the STM via Displacement?
When STM becomes full, new information pushes out old information
33How are memories lost from the STM via decay?
Memories are forgotten over the passage of time if they are not reinforced, rehearsed or transferred to LTM
34What is the working memory model and what does this result in?
The STM can process data to a limited extent, allowing it to perform simple cognitive tasks
35The LTM has an unlimited/limited capacity and holds information for a long time
Unlimited
36How is information transferred from STM to LTM?
Rehearsal
Organisation
Elaboration
37What type of encoding is rehearsal?
A shallow form
38What type of encoding is elaboration and what is the result of this?
Deeper form, leading to improved information retention
39What is retrieval aided by?
Use of contextual cues
40What are contextual cues?
They relate to the time and place when the information was initially encoded into LTM
41Name the three parts of a neuron
Dendrites
Cell Body
Axon
42What is the function of dendrites?
They receive nerve impulses and carry them towards the cell body
43What is the function of the cell body of a neuon?
It contains the nucleus and most of the cytoplasm
44What is the function of the axon?
Carries nerve impulses away from a cell body into the next neuron
45Describe structure and function of the myelin sheath
Axons are surrounded by a myelin sheath which insulates the axon and increases the speed of impulse conduction
46What is myelination and when does it occur?
The formation of a myelin sheath around an axon, it continues from birth to adolescence
47How to responses to stimuli change throughout life?
They are not as rapid or coordinated in the first two years of life due to less myelination
48What is the role of glial cells?
They produce the myelin sheath and support neurons
49What do neurons connect with at a synaptic cleft?
Other neurons or muscle fibres
50What are neurotransmitters?
Chemicals which relay impulses across the synaptic cleft
51Where are neurotransmitters stored?
In vesicles in the axon endings of the presynaptic neuron
52What happens when an impulse arrives and triggers the release of neurotransmitters?
They diffuse across the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron
53Why do neurotransmitters need to be removed?
To prevent continuous stimulation of postsynaptic neurons
54How are neurotransmitters removed from the post-synaptic cleft
Enzyme degradation
Re-uptake
55What do receptors on the post-synaptic neuron determine?
Whether the signal is excitatory or inhibitory
56What is the role of an excitatory signal?
Causes a nerve impulse in the postsynaptic neuron
57What is the role of an inhibitory signal?
Reduces the chances of an impulse in the post-synaptic neuron
58What can synapses filter out?
Weak stimuli arising from insufficient secretion of neurotransmitters.
59What must occur to cause an impulse?
A minimum number of neurotransmitter molecules must attach to receptors in order to reach the threshold on the postsynaptic membrane to transmit the impulse
60What is summation?
A series of weak stimuli can release enough neurotransmitter to trigger an impulse.
61BLANK can release enough neurotransmitter molecules to reach the threshold and trigger an impulse
Convergent neural pathways
62What are endorphins?
Neurotransmitters that stimulate neurons involved in reducing the intensity of pain
63What are increased levels of endorphins linked to?
Feelings of pleasure obtained from activities such as eating, sex and prolonged excercise
64What does endorphin production increase in response to?
Severe injury, prolonged and continuous exercise, stress and certain foods.
65What is dopamine?
A neurotransmitter that induces feelings of pleasure
66What is the role of dopamine?
It reinforces particular behaviour by activating the reward pathway in the brain
67What does the reward pathway in the brain involve and when is it activated?
it involves neurons which secrete or respond to dopamine, it is activated when an individual engages in a behaviour that is beneficial to them.
68Drugs used to treat neurotransmitter related disorders are...
Agonists or antagonists
69What are agonists?
Chemicals that bind to and stimulate specific receptors mimicking the action of a neurotransmitter at a synapse
70What are antagonists?
Chemicals that bind to specific receptors blocking the action of a neurotransmitter at a synapse
71How do other drugs used to treat neurotransmitter related disorders act?
Inhibiting the enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters
Inhibiting reuptake of the neurotransmitter at the synapse causing an enhanced effect.
72Recreational drugs can act as...
Agonists or Antagonists
73What is the effect of recreational drugs?
Affect neurotransmission in the reward pathway and the synapses in the brain altering an individual's mood, cognition, perception and behaviour
74How is drug addiction caused by the repeated use of drugs that act as antagonists?
They block specific receptors causing the nervous system to increase both the number and sensitivity of these receptors. This sensitisation leads to addiction where the individual craves more of the drug
75Explain how drug tolerance is caused by repeated use of drugs that act as agonists
They stimulate specific receptors causing the nervous system to decrease the number and sensitivity of these receptors. This desensitisation leads to drug tolerance where the individual must take more of the drug to get an effect.
76What is a pathogen?
A bacterium, virus or other organism that can cause disease
77What do epithelial cells form?
A physical barrier
78Where are closely-packed epithelial cells found in the body?
Skin
Inner lining of the digestive system
Inner lining of the respiratory system
79What are produced to fight invading pathogens?
Chemical secretion such as saliva, mucus, tears and stomach acid
80What do mast cells release during the first stage of the inflammatory response and what effect does this have?
Histamine, causing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
81What does increased blood flow in the second stage of the inflammatory response cause?
An accumulation of phagocytes and clotting elements at the site of infection
82What do phagocytes do?
Recognise pathogens and destroy them by phagocytosis
83Describe phagocytosis
Pathogens are engulfed by a phagocytic cell and the pathogen is destroyed by digestive enzymes contained in lisosomes
84What do phagocytes release and what effect does this have?
Cytokines which attract more phagocytes to the site of infection
85What are cytokines?
Protein molecule that act as a signal to specific white blood cells causing them to accumulate at the site of infection
86What are lymphocytes?
The white blood cells involved in the specific immune response
87What are antigens?
Molecules located on the surface of cells that trigger a specific immune response
88What to lymphocytes respond to?
Specific antigens on invading pathogens
89Lymphocytes have a single type of membrane receptor which is...
specific to one antigen
90What does antigen binding lead to?
Repeated lymphocyte division resulting in the formation of a clonal population of identical lymphocytes
91What are the two types of lymphocytes?
B Lymphocytes and T Lymphocytes
92How do B lymphocytes function?
They produce antibodies against antigens which leads to the destruction of the pathogen
93What are antibodies?
Y-shaped proteins that have receptor binding sites specific to a particular antigen on a pathogen.
94Antibodies bind to antigens, what does this do?
Inactivates the pathogen and forms an antigen-antibody complex which can be destroyed by phagocytosis.
95Describe how an allergic reaction occurs
B Lymphocytes respond to antigens on substances that are harmless to the body
96How do T lymphocytes function
They destroy infected body cells by recognising antigens of the pathogen on the cell membrane and inducing apoptosis.
97What is apoptosis?
Programmed cell death
98What do T lymphocytes do once they attach onto infected cells?
Release proteins
99T lymphocytes release proteins once they attach onto an infected cell, what do these do?
They diffuse into the infected cells causing production of self-destructive enzymes causing cell death.
100After T-lymphocytes cause apoptosis, what happens to the cell remains?
They are removed by phagocytosis
101How do T-lymphocytes ensure only infected cells are destroyed?
They can normally distinguish between self-antigens on the body's own cells and non-self-antigens on infected cells
102What causes autoimmune diseases?
Failure of the regulation of the immune system leads to T Lymphocytes responding to self-antigens.
103In autoimmunity, what do T lymphocytes attack?
The body's own cells
104Some of the cloned B and T lymphocytes survive long-term as..
Memory cells
105When a secondary exposure to the same antigen occurs, memory cells give rise to what?
A new clone of specific lymphocytes
106How does antibody production differ from the primary response in the secondary response?
It is greater and more rapid
107How does human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affect the body?
Attacks and destroys T lymphocytes
108What does HIV cause a depletion of and what can this lead to?
T lymphocytes which leads to the development of AIDS
109How does AIDS affect an individual?
They have a weakened immune system and are more vulnerable to opportunistic infections
110How can immunity be developed by vaccination?
By using antigens from infectious pathogens to stimulate the body to create memory cells
111Give four examples of antigens used in vaccines?
Inactivated pathogen toxins
Dead pathogens
Parts of pathogens
Weakened pathogens
112What are antigens usually mixed with when producing a vaccine?
Adjuvant
113What is an adjuvant?
A substance which makes the vaccine more effective and enhances the immune response
114When does herd immunity occur?
When a large percentage of a population is immunised
115Why is establishing herd immunity important?
It reduces the spread of diseases
116How does herd immunity reduce the spread of diseases?
Non-immune individuals are protected as there is a lower probabiity they will come into contact with infected individuals
117What is the herd immunity threshold?
The percentage of the population which must be vaccinated to achieve herd immunity
118What three factors does the herd immunity threshold depend upon?
Type of disease
Effectiveness of vaccine
Population density
119What are mass vaccination programmed designed to do?
Establish herd immunity to a disease
120Explain two difficulties that can arise in achieving the herd immunity threshold in a mass vaccination programme
Poverty in the developing world
A percentage of the population in the developed world rejects the vaccines
121What is antigenic variation?
When some pathogens can change their antigens. This means that memory cells are not effective against them.
122Antigenic variation occurs in the influenza virus, what does this explain and how can precautionary measures be taken?
This explains why it remains a major public health problem despite vaccination programmes. Individuals who are at risk need to be vaccinated every year.
123Why are vaccines and drugs subjected to clinical trials?
To establish their safety and effectiveness before being licensed for use
124What does a randomised clinical trial involve and why is it effective?
Subjects are divided into groups in a randomised way to reduce bias in the distribution of characteristics such as age and gender
125What does a double-blind clinical trial involve and why is it effective?
Neither the subjects nor the researchers know which group subjects are in to prevent biased interpretation of the results
126What does a placebo-controlled clinical trial involve and why is it effective?
One group of subjects receives the vaccine or drug while the second group receives a placebo-control to ensure valid comparisons
127Why is it important that a suitable group size is used in clinical trials?
This reduces the magnitude of experimental error and allows for comparison between groups to identify any statistically significant differences.
128What do testes produce? Specify where
They produce sperm in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone in the interstitial cells
129What is the role of the prostate gland and seminal vesicles?
To secrete fluids that maintain the mobility and viability of the sperm
130What do ovaries contain?
Immature ova in various stages of development
131What is each ovum surrounded by and what effect does this have?
A follicle which protects the developing ovum and secretes hormones
132What happens when mature ova are released into the oviduct?
They may be fertilised by sperm to form a zygote
133What triggers the onset of puberty?
The hypothalamus secretes a releaser hormone which stimulates the pituitary gland to release FSH, LH in females or ICSH in males
134What is the effect of FSH?
Promotes sperm production
135What is the effect of ICSH?
Stimulates the production of testosterone
136What is the effect of testosterone?
Stimulates sperm production and activates the prostate gland and seminal vesicles
137Explain the process of negative feedback control of testosterone
As the concentration of testosterone builds up in the bloodstream it reaches a level where it inhibits the secretion of FSH and ICSH by the pituitary gland. This leads to a decrease in testosterone concentration which triggers the pituitary gland to make FSH and ICSH.
138How long does the menstrual cycle last?
Approximately 28 days
139What is menstruation indicated by?
Blood Flow
140State the two different phases which make up the menstrual cycle
Follicular Phase and Luteal Phase
141What is the effect of FSH in the menstrual cycle?
Stimulates the development and maturation of a follicle and stimulates the follicle to secrete oestrogen
142What is the effect of LH in the menstrual cycle?
Brings about the development of the corpus luteum from the follicle and stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone
143What is the effect of Oestrogen in the menstrual cycle?
Stimulates proliferation of the endometrium and prepares it for implantation.
144What effect does oestrogen have on the cervical mucus?
Makes it more easily penetrated by sperm
145What do peak levels of oestrogen stimulate?
A surge in LH which triggers ovulation
146What is ovulation?
The release of an egg from the ovary which usually occurs at the midpoint of the menstrual cycle
147What is the effect of progesterone in the menstrual cycle?
Promotes further development and vascularisation of the endometrium, preparing it for implantation if fertilisation occurs
148Describe the negative feedback effect of progesterone in the menstrual cycle
High levels of progesterone inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH by the pituitary gland, which inhibits the secretion of Progesterone and Oestrogen
149Describe the Follicular phase of the menstrual cycle
The concentration of oestrogen builds up, stimulating the proliferation and repair of the endometrium and preparing it for implantation as well as affecting the cervical mucus so that it is more easily penetrated by sperm
Peak levels of oestrogen stimulate a surge in the secretion of LH and FSH by the pituitary gland
The surge of LH triggers ovulation
The ovum moves along the oviduct
150Describe the luteal phase in the menstrual cycle (Up to where it splits depending on whether fertilisation occurs or not)
LH stimulates the follicle to become the corpus luteum
The corpus luteum secretes progesterone
The rise is progesterone concentration stimulates further development of the endometrium so it becomes thick, spongy and has an increase in vascular blood vessels
High levels of oestrogen and progesterone trigger and inhibitory effect on the pituitary gland, so concentrations of FSH and LH drop as a result and no new follicles develop at this time
151Describe the Luteal phase if fertilisation does not occur
The drop of LH leads to the degeneration of the corpus luteum
There is a rapid drop in progesterone
By approximately day 28 the ovarian hormones are so low that the endometrium cannot be maintained and menstruation begins
Menstruation, which involves the loss of the inner layer of the endometrium accompanied by a small volume of blood, occurs
152Describe the luteal phase if fertilisation does successfully occur
The embryo secretes a hormone called HCG which has the same effect as LH
HCG maintains the corpus luteum which continues to secrete progesterone and prevents menstruation taking place
After about 6 weeks the placenta takes on the job of secreting progesterone
153What are pregnancy tests based on?
The presence of HCG in urine
154What type of fertility is displayed in women? Describe what this means
Cyclical Fertility. This means they are only fertile for a few days during each menstrual cycle, immediately after ovulation
155What type of fertility is displayed in men? Describe what this means
Continuous fertility. This means they continually produce sperm in their testes
156How is the fertile period identified in women?
Her body temperature rises by 0.5 degrees after ovulation and her cervical mucus becomes thin and watery
157Describe Artificial Insemination
Several samples of semen are collected over a period of time and frozen until required. When ready,, the semen are defrosted and released into the female's cervix during her fertile period.
158Describe when Artificial Insemination may be used as a treatment of infertility
If the male has a low sperm count
159Describe Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ISCSI)
The head of a sperm is drawn into a needle and injected directly into the egg to achieve fertilisation
160When may Intracytoplasmic sperm injection be used as a treatment of infertility?
If mature sperm or defective or the man has a low sperm count
161Describe the steps involved in IVF
Woman is given hormonal treatment to stimulate super ovulation
Eggs are surgically removed
Eggs are mixed with sperm in a culture dish
The fertilised eggs are incubated until they have formed at least 8 cells
The zygotes are then transferred to the uterus for implantation
162How is Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) used in conjuction with IVF?
To identify single gene disorders and chromosomal abnormalities
163Name three physical methods (barriers) of contraception
Condom
Diaphragm
Cervical Cap
164Describe how an intra-uterine device works
It is a T-shaped device that is fitted into the uterus to prevent implantation of an embryo
165Describe 2 Sterilisation procedures used as contraception
In men, a vasectomy involves cutting and tying the two sperm ducts. This prevents sperm being released during sex
In women, a tubal ligation involves cutting and tying the two oviducts. This prevents eggs meeting sperm and reaching the uterus.
166Name three chemical methods of contraception
Oral contraceptive pill
Emergency hormonal contraceptive pills
synthetic progesterone
167Describe how an oral contraceptive pill works
Contains a combination of synthetic oestrogen and progesterone that mimics negative feedback preventing the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland.
168Describe how a progesterone only pill works
Causes thickening of the cervical mucus, making it harder for sperm to reach the egg
169Describe how an emergency hormonal contraceptive pill works
Prevents or delays ovulation
170What is the purpose of antenatal screening?
To identify the risk of a disorder so that further tests and a prenatal diagnosis can be offered
171Name the two types of ultrasound scans given to pregnant women in antenatal screening as well as when they are given
A dating scan between 8 and 14 weeks
An anomaly scan between 18 and 20 weeks
172What is the purpose of a dating ultrasound scan and what it is used in conjunction with?
This determines the pregnancy stage and due date.
It is used in conjunction with blood and urine tests for marker chemicals which vary normally during pregnancy
173What is the purpose of an anomaly ultrasound scan?
To detect serious physical abnormalities in the foetus
174Why are routine blood and urine tests carried out throughout pregnancy?
To monitor the concentrations of marker chemicals
175What could be the consequence of measuring a chemical at the wrong time during a pregnancy?
This cold lead to a false positive result
176What can an atypical chemical concentration during pregnancy lead to?
Diagnostic testing to determine if the foetus has a medical condition
177Name two methods that can be used to prepare someone's karyotype for the purpose of diagnostic screening in pregnant women.
Amniocentesis and Chorionic Villus Sampling
178Where are cells taken from for amniocentesis?
Amniotic fluid containing fetal cells
179When in the pregnancy is amniocentesis carried out?
14-16 weeks
180What is the advantage of using amniocentesis?
There is a lower risk of miscarriage than CVS
181What is the disadvantage of using amniocentesis?
Cells need to be cultured before the karyotype can be done which can take 2 weeks
182Where are cells taken from for Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
Placenta
183When in the pregnancy is Chorionic Villus Sampling carried out?
8 weeks
184What is the advantage of using Chorionic Villus Sampling?
Karyotyping is carried out on fetal cells immediately
185What is the disadvantage of using Chorionic Villus Sampling?
There is a higher risk of a miscarriage than in amniocentesis
186What does a karyotype show, and what does it allow?
An individual's chromosomes arranged as homologous pairs. This allows diagnosis of genetic conditions where chromosomes are missing or extra copies are present
187Describe diagnostic testing for PKU
This occurs when the baby is a few days old and involves having their blood tested for the presence of excess phenylalanine
188What causes PKU?
A substitution mutation which means the enzyme which converts phenylalanine into tyrosine is non-functional
189What effect does a PKU diagnosis have on a person's lifestyle?
They are put on a restricted diet.
190Genes contain information about...
an organism's characteristics
191What is an allele?
Different forms of a gene
192Define 'Phenotype'
The physical appearance of an organism
193Define 'Genotype'
This is the two copies of a gene that every individual has
194Describe the 'Dominant Allele'
The allele which is always expressed in the phenotype
195Describe the 'Recessive Allele'
An allele only expressed if an organism has two copies of it
196Describe an individual whose genotype is homozygous
They have two alleles which are the same for that characteristic
197Describe an individual whose genotype is heterozygous
They have two different alleles for that characteristic
198Describe the key aspects of autosomal recessive inheritance (3)
The trait may skip generations
Genotypes of sufferers are homozygous recessive
Genotypes of non-sufferers are homozygous dominant or heterozygous
199Describe the key aspects of Autosomal dominant inheritance (4)
The trait is expressed in every generation
Each sufferer of the trait has an affected parent
Genotypes of sufferers are homozygous dominant or heterozygous
Genotypes of non-sufferers are homozygous recessive
200Describe the key aspects of autosomal incomplete Dominance (4)
Each sufferer of the fully expressed form has two parents who suffer from the partly expressed form
All non-sufferers are homozygous for one incompletely dominant allele
All sufferers of the fully expressed form are homozygous for the other incompletely dominant allele
All sufferers of the partly expressed form are heterozygous for the two alleles
201Describe the key aspects of sex-linked recessive traits
An affected male cannot pass the trait on to his son
Some grandsons of an affected male show the trait
All sufferers of the trait are homozygous recessive
Non-sufferers are homozygous dominant or heterozygous carrier females
202In what order does the blood circulate from the heart through the veins, capillaries and arteries?
From the heart through the arteries to the capillaries, then to the veins and back to the heart.
203As blood moves away from the heart, what happens to the blood pressure?
It decreases
204Describe the structure of arteries (in terms of endothelium, central lumen, connective tissue, elastic fibres, smooth muscle and valves)
The walls are thick and strong. The outer layer is composed of connective tissue containing elastic fibres. The middle layer is composed of muscle. The inner layer is made up elastic fibres and an endothelium lining.
Have a narrow lumen
Don't have any valves
Divided up into arterioles
205Describe the structure of capillaries (in terms of endothelium, central lumen, connective tissue, elastic fibres, smooth muscle and valves)
The walls are very thin
Have a very narrow lumen
Don't have any valves
206Describe the structure of veins (in terms of endothelium, central lumen, connective tissue, elastic fibres, smooth muscle and valves)
Thin Walled. The outer layer is made of connective tissue containing elastic fibres, the middle layer is composed of muscle, the inner layer contains elastic fibres and the endothelium lining.
Have a wider lumen than arteries
Have valves
207What do veins divide up into?
Venules
208Describe the function of capillaries
Blood is transported from arterioles to venules by passing through the dense network of capillaries. Their thin walls and narrow lumen allow for materials to be easily exchanged with the tissues.
209Describe the function of arteries
Carry blood away from the heart at high pressure. The strength and elasticity of their walls allow them to withstand the pulsing of blood, prevent bursting, maintain blood pressure, and carry out vasoconstriction and vasodilation.
210What do arteries divide up into?
Arterioles
211Describe the function of veins
Carry blood to the heart at low pressure. Their wide lumen allows for less resistance to blood flow and the valves prevent the backflow of blood.
212What is the endothelium lining the central lumen of blood vessels surround by?
Layers of tissue
213How do the walls of arteries adapt to their function?
They stretch and recoil to accommodate the surge of blood after each contraction of the heart.
214Explain the role of vasoconstriction in controlling blood flow
The smooth muscle surrounding arteries contracts to allow less blood flow
215Explain the role of vasodilation to control blood flow
The smooth muscle surrounding arteries relaxes to allow more blood flow.
216Tissue fluid and blood plasma are similar in composition, with what exception?
Tissue fluid doesn't contain plasma proteins, as they are too large to be filtered through the capillary walls
217What is the result of pressure filtration?
Plasma passes through capillary walls into the tissue fluid surrounding the cells
218What is the role of tissue fluid?
To supply cells with glucose, oxygen and other substances
219During pressure filtration, what happens to carbon dioxide and other metabolic wastes?
They diffuse out of the cells and into the tissue fluid to be excreted
220A lot / Not a lot of the tissue fluid returns to the blood
A lot
221Describe the role of lymphatic vessels
They absorb excess tissue fluid and return it as lymph to the circulatory system.
222Define Cardio Output
The volume of blood pumped through each ventricle per minute
223How is Cardiac Output Calculated?
heart rate x stroke volume
224Do the left and right ventricles pump different volumes of blood through the aorta and pulmonary artery?
No
225Define the term 'Diastole'
When the heart muscle is relaxed and the chambers fill with blood
226Define the term 'Atrial Systole'
When the atria walls contract
227Define the term 'Ventricular systole'
When the ventricular walls contract
228Describe the flow of blood through the heart, beginning with blood returning to the atria.
During diastole. blood returning to the atria flows into the ventricles.
Atrial systole transfers the remainder of the blood through the atrio-ventricular valves to the ventricles
Ventricular systole closes the atrio-ventricular valves and pumps the blood out through the semi lunar valves to the aorta and pulmonary artery
229In diastole, what causes the semi lunar valves to close?
The higher blood pressure in the arteries
230What is the effect of the increased blood pressure as the ventricles contract?
The atrio-ventricular valves close
231What is the effect of the increased blood pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery as blood flows into them at the end of the cardiac cycle?
The semi lunar valves close
232What causes the heart sounds heard with a stethoscope?
The opening and closing of the atrio-ventricular and semi-lunar valves
233What is heart muscle contraction and timing controlled by?
SAN cells
234What is the role of the sino-atrial node (SAN) in the heart
It generates electrical impulses and passes them across the heart muscle causing it to contract in a co-ordinated sequence
235Where does the heartbeat originate?
In the heart
236The cells of the SAN are auto-rhythmic, describe what this means
They can generate their own electrical signal themselves, without stimulation by a neuron
237Where is the SAN located in the heart?
In the wall of the right atrium
238What sets the rate at which the heart contracts?
The auto-rhythmic cells of the SAN
239What controls the timing of the cardiac muscle cell contraction?
Impulses from the SAN spreading through the atria causing atrial systole
240Once impulses spread through the atria and cause atrial systole, where do they travel to?
The atrioventricular node located in the centre of the heart
241Where do impulses from the atrioventricular node (AVN) travel to? (And how?)
They travel down fibres in the central wall of the heart and then up through the walls of the ventricles, causing ventricular systole
242What does an electrocardiogram detect?
Currents generated by impulses in the heart.
243What does the medulla regulate and how?
The rate of the sinoatrial node through the antagonistic action of the autonomic nervous system
244What does the sympathetic nerve in the autonomic nervous system release and what effect does this have?
Noradrenaline which increases the heart rate
245What does the parasympathetic nerve in the autonomic nervous system release and what effect does this have?
Acetylcholine which decreases the heart rate
246How does blood pressure in the aorta change during ventricular systole and diastole?
It increases during ventricular systole and decreases during diastole
247What is used to measure blood pressure?
A sphygmomanometer
248What is the typical blood pressure for a young adult?
120/80 mmHg
249Describe how a sphygmomanometer works
An inflatable cuff is placed around the arm, it inflates to stop blood flow in the artery, then deflates gradually. As it deflates, the blood starts to flow, detected by a pulse, at systolic pressure. When the blood flows freely through the artery, and a pulse is not detected, this is the value of diastolic pressure
250What is Hypertension?
High blood pressure, it is a major risk factor for many diseases including coronary heart disease
251Define artherosclerosis
The accumulation of fatty material beneath the endothelium of an artery, resulting in increased blood pressure.
252What is atheroma made of?
Fatty material, fibrous material and calcium
253Describe how the growing atheroma affects the artery
Artery's lumen becomes narrower
Blood flow to the capillary bed is restricted
Blood pressure increases
The artery walls lose elasticity due to deposits of calcium and harden
254State four cardiovascular diseases which are caused by atherosclerosis
Angina, heart attack, stroke and peripheral vascular disease
255Describe the process of thrombosis
Atheromas may rupture, damaging the endothelium.
This damage releases clotting factors which convert the inactive enzyme prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin.
Thrombin then catalyses the reaction in which fibrinogen becomes fibrin.
Fibrin threads form a meshwork that clots the blood, seals the wound and provides a scaffold for the formation of scar tissue
256Describe the formation and effects of an embolus
A thrombus may break loose forming an embolus which travels through the bloodstream until it blocks a blood vessel
257What could thrombosis in a coronary artery lead to?
A heart attack
258What could thrombosis in an artery to the brain lead to?
A stroke
259What is the medical term for a heart attack?
Myocardial infarction
260During Myocardial infarction and stroke, what happens to the cells beyond the blockage?
They are deprived of oxygen, leading to the death of the tissues.
261What is peripheral vascular disease?
The narrowing of the arteries other than those of the heart or brain
262Which arteries are most commonly affected by peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?
Arteries to the legs
263Describe and explain the symptoms of peripheral vascular disease
Pain is experienced in the leg muscles due to a limited supply of oxygen
264What is Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
A blood clot that forms in a deep vein, commonly in the leg. This can break off and result in a pulmonary embolism in the lungs
265What is cholesterol?
A type of lipid found in the cell membrane
266What is cholesterol used to make?
Sex hormones testosterone, progesterone and oestrogen
267Cholesterol is synthesised in all cells, however 25% is produced in one organ, what is this organ?
The liver
268What causes an increase in cholesterol levels in the blood?
A diet high in saturated fats or cholesterol
269Describe the role of high density lipoproteins (HDL)
Transports excess cholesterol from the body cells to the liver for elimination, preventing accumulation of cholesterol in the blood.
270Describe the role of low density lipoproteins (LDL)
Transports cholesterol to body cells
271Describe the role of LDL receptors
Most cells have LDL receptors that take LDL into the cell where it releases cholesterol
272Describe negative feedback control involving cholesterol (mention atheroma formation)
Once a cell has sufficient cholesterol a negative feedback system inhibits the synthesis of new LDL receptors and LDL circulates in the blood where it may deposit the cholesterol in the arteries forming atheromas.
273What will a higher ratio of HDL to LDL result in?
Lower blood cholesterol and a reduced chance of atherosclerosis
274State the benefits of physical activity in reducing cholesterol levels
Regular physical activity tends to raise HDL levels
275State the benefits of a low fat diet in reducing cholesterol levels
Dietary changes aim to reduce the levels of total fat in the diet and to replace saturated fats with unsaturated fats
276Describe how blood cholesterol can be reduced through prescribed medications
Drugs such as statins reduce blood cholesterol by inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol by liver cells
277What can chronic elevation of blood glucose levels lead to?
The endothelium cells taking in more glucose than normal, damaging the blood vessels
278What may develop as a result of blood vessel damage, caused by a chronic elevation of blood glucose levels? And what may this lead to?
Atherosclerosis, which may lead to stroke, CVD or PVD
279What may damage to small blood vessels, caused by chronically elevated glucose levels, lead to?
Haemorrhage of blood vessels in the retina, renal failure or peripheral nerve dysfunction
280How do pancreatic receptors respond to raised blood glucose levels?
They increase secretion of insulin from the pancreas
281What effect does an increased secretion of insulin have?
It activates the conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver, decreasing blood glucose concentration
282How do pancreatic receptors respond to lowered blood glucose levels?
They increase secretion of glucagon from the pancreas
283What effect does an increased secretion of glucagon have?
It activates the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver, increasing blood glucose concentration
284During exercise and fight or flight responses, what are glucose concentrations in the blood raised by? From where? What effect does this have?
Adrenaline released from the adrenal gland which stimulates glucagon secretion and inhibits insulin secretion
285When does type 1 diabetes usually occur?
Childhood
286What is someone with type 1 diabetes unable to produce? How is this treated?
Insulin, this can be treated with regular doses of insulin
287When does type 2 diabetes usually develop?
Adulthood
288How does type 2 diabetes affect someone?
Individuals produce insulin but their cells are less sensitive to it due to a decrease in the number of insulin receptors in the liver, leading to a failure to convert glucose to glycogen
289In both types of diabetes, what will happen to an individual after a meal?
Their blood glucose concentrations will rise rapidly
290When the blood glucose concentrations of an individual spike after a meal, the kidney will remove some of this glucose from the blood, what does this result in? And what are the uses of this?
Glucose appearing in urine. Testing urine for glucose is an indicator of diabetes.
291Describe what is involved in conducting a glucose tolerance test, used to diagnose diabetes
The blood glucose concentrations of an individual are measured after fasting. The individual drinks a glucose solution and changes in their blood glucose concentration are measured for at least the next two hours.
292Describe the expected results of a diabetic from a glucose tolerance test
Their blood glucose concentration usually starts at a higher level than that of a non-diabetic.
During the test, their blood glucose concentration increases to a much higher level than that of a non-diabetic.
Their blood glucose levels take longer to return to the starting concentration
293What is obesity a major risk factor for?
CVD and type 2 diabetes
294What is obesity characterised by?
Excess body fat in relation to lean body tissue
295How will obesity affect a person's general health?
It may impair health
296How is obesity commonly measured, and what issue is there with using this method?
Body mass index, but it can wrongly classify muscular individuals as obese
297How is BMI calculated?
Weight in kg divided by height in metres squared
298What BMI indicates obesity?
Above 30
299What is Obesity caused by?
High fat diets and a decrease in physical activity
300A diet used to treat obesity should limit fats and free sugars, why?
Fats have a high calorific value per gram and free sugars require no metabolic energy to be expended in their digestion