Week 2 180

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1
Where are the kidneys located?
In the retroperitoneum on either side of the spine
2
What is the glomerulus?
A small cluster of small-convoluted mass of capillaries. A network of vascular tufts encased in Bowman’s capsule where blood is filtered of excess water and waste products.
3
How do kidneys protect other organs?
Maintaining a long-term acid-base balance to keep blood pH within the expected reference range of 7.35-7.45
4
How do kidneys help maintain fluid and electrolyte balance?
Regulating plasma osmolarity
5
What is plasma osmolarity?
Concentration of a solution in terms of osmoses of solutes per liter of solution
6
What is erythropoietin?
A glycoprotein hormone (messenger hormone) that is secreted by the kidneys in adults (liver in a fetus) which acts on bone marrow stem cells stimulating red blood cell production
7
What is renin?
An enzyme that is secreted by the kidney that assists with regulating blood pressure
8
What do the kidneys do to vitamin D?
Convert to the active form (calcitriol)
9
How many nephrons are in each kidney?
Approximately one million
10
The kidneys receive approximately ____% of the cardiac output due to the high oxygen consumption used during filtration.
20
11
How does blood travel through the kidney?
Enters via the renal artery, flows through multiple arteries until it reaches the interlobular arteries which further branches into afferent arterioles. Blood then enters the Bowman’s capsule and exits through efferent arterioles which divide into smaller peritubular cappilaries. Then leaves and returns to venous circulation.
12
What is the purpose of ureters?
Transport urine produced in the kidneys to the bladder
13
What happens when the bladder is full?
Sensory nerves send a message to the central nervous system about the urge to urinate. The detrusor muscle receives an impulse to contract as the internal and external urethral sphincters relax and urine leaves the body.
14
What stops the flow of urine?
Contraction of both urethral sphincters
15
What are the three sections of the male urethra?
Prostatic, membranous, and penile
16
What is glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
The amount of blood and plasma filtered over one minute
17
What is the expected range for GFR?
20-29 years old: high of 116 mL/min/1.73 m2
70 or older: 75mL/min/1.73 m2
18
What laboratory tests indicate kidney function?
BUN, serum creatinine, and GFR
19
What is the expected reference range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
10-20mg/dL
20
What is creatinine?
A waste product from normal use of muscles within the body
21
What is the expected reference range for creatinine?
Females: less than 1.2 mg/dL
Males: less than 1.3 mg/dL
22
What is a UTI?
An infection in the bladder, kidneys, ureters, or urethra
23
What is urethritis?
UTI involving the urethra
24
What is cystitis?
UTI involving the bladder
25
What is pyelonephritis?
UTI involving the kidney
26
What client education topic is important to cover with clients with a UTI?
Antibiotic compliance through entire prescription
27
What is stress incontinence?
Involuntary urine leakage with sneezing, coughing, or physical exertion caused by weakness of the urethral sphincter or pelvic floor muscles
28
What is urge incontinence?
Frequent sense of urge to urinate that either precedes or is accompanied by leakage or urine and is caused by detrusor muscle overactivity which causes bladder contraction
29
What is overflow incontinence?
Urine leakage from an overdistended bladder caused by a bladder obstruction that blocks urine excretion or impaired contractility of the detrusor muscle
30
What is hyperplasia?
An abnormal increase in the reproduction of cells in an organ or tissue
31
What is benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Noncancerous enlargement of the prostate through which rhe urethra passes
32
What is an example of a urinary antispasmodic?
Oxybutynin (Ditropin XL)
33
What is the clinical presentation of BPH?
-Difficulty initiating urine stream, dysuria, nocturia, increased frequency and urgency, urine retention, and weak urine stream.
34
What are risk factors for BPH?
Being make and older than 50
35
What lifestyle changes should the nurse encourage for a client with BPH?
Changes that can help relieve lower urinary tract manifestations:
-Reducing caffeine intake
-Losing weight
-Controlling hypertension
-Improving diabetic control
-Decreasing fluid intake in the evening
-Preventing constipation
36
What dietary recommendations are made for a client with BPH?
Decreasing saturated fat intake (foods high in saturated fats: beef, lamb, pork, poultry with skin, beef fat, lard, cream, butter, cheese, ice cream, coconut, some baked and fried foods)
37
What is continuous bladder irrigation?
A common medical procedure that uses sterile salone fluids to flush clots from the bladder after surgery
38
What is acute pyelonephritis?
A severe kidney infection that occurs suddenly and causes the kidneys to swell
39
What causes acute pyelonephritis?
Usually develops from a lower UTI where the bacteria has entered the urethra, spread to the bladder, then spreads to the kidneys by traveling up the ureter
40
What are risk factors for acute pyelonephritis?
-Any condition that leads to an interruption of the normal flow of urine
-Being female
-Renal stones or kidney and bladder disorders
-Enlarged prostate
41
What is emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A serious complication of acute pyelonephritis. A necrotizing infection that destroys the kidney tissues
42
What are complications of acute pyelonephritis?
Formation of renal abscesses, thrombosis in the renal vein, and acute renal failure
43
What are the clinical manifestations of acute pyelonephritis?
Most common: fever over 102, pain in the side, back, or groin, dysuria, cloudy or bloody urine, and fishy odor to the urine
-Other: chills, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and mental confusion
44
What manifestations present with kidney damage?
Fluid overload (weight gain and edema)
45
What assessments should be done for a client with acute pyelonephritis?
-Focused GU
-Pain assessment
-Assess flank area for tenderness, edema, or redness
-Monitor kidney function tests
46
What is polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?
An inherited disorder that causes fluid-filled cysts to develop in the kidneys, damaging them and impairing renal function. PKD is progressive and leads to renal failure
47
How do you prevent PKD?
The disease is not curable or preventable as it is a genetic disorder
48
What is the clinical presentation of PKD?
Flank pain, polyuria, nocturia, palpable kidney masses, hematuria, hypertension, and proteinuria
49
What is the role of the nurse in PKD treatment?
Primarily support, advocacy, and education. Also recognizing signs of psychosocial impairment, anxiety, or depression, and notifying their provider
50
What are some important client education topics for PKD?
-Dietary changes (may be recommended to follow a low protein, low sodium diet)
-Smoking cessation
-Do not take ibuprofen, naproxen, or other NSAIDs unless cleared by the provider
-Support groups
51
What assessments should be completed for a patient with PKD?
-Thorough history
-Thorough pain assessment (location, radiation, onset, frequency, duration, and aggravating or alleviating factors)
-Blood pressure baseline and history
-Measure clients abdominal girth
52
Why is it important to minitor blood pressure for patients with PKD?
As the disease progresses, activation of the renin-angiotensin system may cause hypertension
53
What client education is important for PKD?
-Renal failure s/s
-Taking and recording BP
-Need to strictly control BP
-Antibiotic prescription compliance
-Importance of maintaining adequate hydration
-Manifestations of bladder/kidney infection
54
What is hypovolemia?
An abnormally decreased volume of circulating blood in the body
55
What is azotemia?
A condition where there is too much nitrogen and other waste products in the blood, usually caused by kidney dysfunction
56
What is glomerulonephritis?
A group of renal diseases in which immune-mediated damage occurs to portions of the glomerulus and results in proteinuria, azotemia, and hematuria
57
What is the pathophysiology of acute glomerulonephritis?
Abrupt onset is usually caused by streptococcus, but can also have unknown causes
58
What is goodpasture syndrome?
An autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack the kidneys and lungs
59
What are some of the clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis?
-Periorbital edema
-Dark and frothy urine
-Elevated blood pressure
-Weakness
-Fever
-Malaise
-Abdominal discomfort
60
What lifestyle modifications are necessary for acute anc chronic glomerulonephritis?
Acute- Salt restriction
Chronic - Sodium, potassium, and protein restriction
Both - Smoking cessation and control of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia
61
What is oliguria?
Low urine output
62
What are signs of excess fluid volume (hypervolemia)?
-Periorbital edema
-Peripheral edema
-Elevated blood pressure
-Fine inspiratory crackles
-Pleural effusion
63
What are the priority interventions for a patient with chronic glomerulonephritis?
-Administration of medicstions to decrease blood pressure
-Remove excess fluid
64
What are renal calculi also called?
-Kidney stones
-Nephrolithiasis
-Urilithiasis
65
What are renal calculi?
Accumulations of minerals and salts and can lodge in the kidney or any portion of the urinary tract and causing pain and blood in the urine
66
What percentage of renal calculi will pass on their own?
80-90%
67
What are risk factors for renal calculi?
-Age: 43 and older
-sex: males are twice as likely to develop calculi
-Extreme heat and sun exposure
-High protein, low carbohydrate diet or a diet high in calcium or salt
68
What is the clinical presentation of renal calculi?
-Severe flank pain with acute onset
-Nausea and vomiting are common
69
What is the priority treatment for clients with renal calculi?
-Pain management
-Fluid volume deficit
70
What is pre-renal acute kidney failure?
There is a decrease in the blood flow to the kidneys caused by hypotension, hypovolemia, heart or liver failure
71
What is intra-renal acute kidney failure?
There has been damage to the functional part of the kidney, the parenchyma (renal cortex and renal medulla)
72
What causes intra-renal acute kidney failure?
Usually occurs with acute tubular necrosis due to nephrotoxic agents or medications, contrast dyes, extended pre-renal failire, or aminoglycosides
73
What are aminoglycosides?
Eight antibiotics used to treat particular bacterial infections: amikacin, neomycin, streptomycin, gentamicin, netilmicin, kanamycin, tobramycin, and paromycin
74
What is rhabdomyolysis?
The disintegration of striated muscle fibers with excretion of myoglobin in the urine
75
What is acute tubular necrosis?
The cells of the renal tubules become damaged and proceeds to cell death and GFR begins to decrease
76
What is post-renal acute kidney failure?
Involves the urinary system below the kidney preventing the urine from draining
77
What is the priority intervention for a client with pre-renal acute kidney failure?
Initiate fluid challenge therapy
78
What is chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A condition in which there is a gradual loss of kidney function over time
79
What is stage one chronic kidney disease?
-eGFR greater than 90
-Kidneys are functioning within normal range. Little kidney damage is present
80
What is stage two chronic kidney disease?
-eGFR 60-90
-Kidneys are still functioning within normal range. Mild kidney damage is present
81
What is stage 3a CKD?
-eGFR: 45-59
-Kidneys are not functioning within normal range
-Mild to moderate damage to kidneys
82
What is stage 3b CKD?
-eGFR: 30-44
-Kidneys are not functioning within normal range
-Moderate to severe damage to kidneys
83
What is stage 4 CKD?
-eGFR: 15-29
-Kidneys are not functioning within normal range and are close to not functioning at all
-Severe kidney damage
84
What is stage 5 CKD?
-eGFR less than 15
-Kidneys are either very close to not functioning or have stopped functioning
-Most severe kidney damage present
85
What is the disease that most commonly causes CKD and end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?
Diabetes mellitus, type two is responsible for 30-50% of cases
86
What are modifiable risk factors of CKD?
-Diabetes mellitus
-Systemic hypertension
-Proteinuria (limiting protein intake iss important)
-Obesity and smoking may also be related
87
What are non-modifiable risk factors for CKD?
Race and ethnicity
-Asian, hispanic, and black clients are at higher risk
-Males older than 65 are also at higher risk
88
What are considerations of the aging adult with CKD?
National Kidney Foundation recommends that people older than 60 receive annual screening assessing for proteinuria
89
What is the expected reference range for albumin levels?
30mg or less
90
What are manifestations of fluid overload?
-Edema
-Crackles in the lungs
-S3 gallop
-Jugular vein distention
91
What does serum BUN test measure?
Serum level of urea, which is a byproduct of the metabolism of proteins
92
How is urine concentration determined?
Specific gravity test
93
What should education and treatment be focused on in CKD or ESRD?
Disease prevention or slowing the progression as well as identification and treatment of complications related to kidney disease
94
What are the five steps of guidelines that the CDC has set to help clients with diabetes and chronic kidney disease with meal planning and food restrictions?
1. Sodium control (less than 2300 mg/day)
2. Protein (right amountight types) important to eat small portions
3. Heart and kidney (healthy food choices) limiting saturated and trans fats
4. Bones and blood vessels: limit phosphorus
5. Limit potassium
95
What do elevated phosphorus levels do to bones?
Draws calcium from them which weakens them
96
What assessments should be done for a client with CKD?
Because kidney disease affects many body systems, perform a head-to-toe assessment
97
What are the three types of access for a patient that receives hemodialysis?
-AV graft that surgically combines a piece of tubing inserted in the arm to join the artery and vein
-AV fistula: Surgically combines an artery and a vein
-Central Venous Dialysis Catheter: inserted into a large vein, usually in the neck
98
What is the preferred type of access for a patient receiving hemodialysis and why?
Fistula because it typically lasts the longest
99
What is a thrill?
Vibration/pulsation felt on palpation of a fistula. Demonstrates adequate blood flow
100
What is a bruit?
A swooshing sound that can be heard when auscultating over a hemodialysis access site
101
What should the nurse do if no thrill or bruit is present at a hemodialysis access site?
Notify provider
102
What are manifestations of hypotension?
Vertigo, nausea, lightheadedness
103
What is peritoneal dialysis?
Dialysis performed through a specialized catheter surgically placed in the abdominal cavity
104
What is an ostomy or stoma?
A surgical opening through the abdominal wall to the colon (colostomy), small intestines (ileostomy), or ileal conduit (urostomy) to allow for drainage of urine
105
How often is ostomy care performed?
Every three days or when the ostomy is leaking or accidentally removed
106
What should a stoma look like?
Should have a pink-red, moist appearance and skin surrounding should be free from breakdown
107
What does a gray or purple stoma indicate?
Decreased perfusion
108
How often should an external catheter be replaced?
Every 8-12 hours or more frequently if soiled with blood or feces
109
What is a bladder scan procedure?
Involves using a noninvasive ultrasound decice to determine the amount of urine in the bladder
110
What are bladder scans typically used to determine?
Post-void residual volume
111
What typically occurs before menarche?
Breast development, growth of pubic and axillary hair, and a growth spurt
112
What hormones increase during the first half of the menstrual cycle?
Follicular stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
113
What is the epididymis?
The tube that connects the testicle to the vas deferens through which sperm are transported
114
What is the vas deferens?
The tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra and where sperm are stored
115
What is follicle-stimulating hormone?
Hormone secreted by the anterier pituitary gland that increases during the first half of the menstrual cycle, triggering ovulation. Levels decrease after ovulation
116
What is luteinizing hormone?
Hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. levels surge during the first half of the menstrual cycle, triggering ovulation, and then levels decrease after ovulation
117
What is dysmenorrhea?
Painful menstruation
-Primary-not associated with other conditions
-Secondary-associated with another medical condition
118
What is amenorrhea?
The absence of menstruation during reproductive years, after puberty and before menopause.
-Primary-never menstruated
-Secondary-did previously menstruate
119
What is premenstrual syndrome?
A wide range of physiological and psychological manifestations, including abdominal pain, bloating, headaches, and mood fluctuations that occur before and during menstruation
120
What is premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?
A more severe form of premenstrual disorder that may require treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
121
What is endometriosis?
Chronic condition that is caused by endometrial tissue that has moved outside the uterus, causing pain and inflammation
122
What is retrograde menstruation?
Endometrial cells move through the fallopian tubes into the peritoneum during menstruation
123
What does a positive beta human chorionic gonadotropin (blood or urine) test indicate?
Pregnancy, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, or cancer
124
What is the expected reference range for RBC count?
5000-10000/mm3
125
What is the expected reference range for hemoglobin?
12-16 g/dL
126
What is the expected reference range for hematocrit?
37-47%
127
What is dysplasia?
Abnormal cells that are not cancerous but may have the potential to become cancer cells. Usually categorized as mild, moderate, or severe.
128
What is a colposcopy?
Procedure that involves the provider inspecting the client’s vagina and cervix using a speculum and colposcope (magnifying glass)
129
What is a total hysterectomy?
The uterus and cervix are removed
130
What is a partial hysterectomy?
The uterus is removed
131
What is a radical hysterectomy?
The uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix, upper part of the vagina, and surrounding lymph nodes are removed
132
What is an oophorectomy?
One or both ovaries are removed
133
What is a salpingectomy?
One or both of the fallopian tubes are removed
134
What is wound dehiscence?
Separation of the edges of a surgical wound
135
What is a myomectomy?
A surgical procedure that is used to remove uterine fibroids
136
What is prostatitis?
An inflammatory process occurring within the prostate gland
137
What is a urethral stricture?
Narrowing of the urethra that causes obstruction leading to difficulty voiding
138
What is prostate-specific antigen (PSA)?
A blood test that is used to screen for prostate cancer. PSA is a protein created by the prostate. An elevated level may be caused by prostate cancer, an enlarged prostate, other prostate problems, or medications
139
What is priapism?
Prolonged erection of the penis that continues without sexual stimulation
140
What is an ombudsman?
An individual who is responsible for identifying, investigating, and resolving complaints or concerns made by or made on behalf of a client
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