Midterm

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1
True or False- Learning about azithromycin, an antibiotic, may serve in understanding the macrolide class of antibiotics. In this case, azithromycin is being used as a prototype drug for the macrolide class.
True
2
Diuretic
Lowers plasma volume
3
Vasodilator
Dilates pripheral blood vessels
4
Calcium Channel Blocker
Blocks heart calcium channels
5
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Blocks hormonal activity
6
Which of the following is true about diphenhydramine. Select all that apply.
It is a generic drug, it is an antihistamine, and it may be sold under the name Allerdryl.
7
True or false- Over the counter drugs are generally safer in that they do not typically interact with other drugs
False
8
Anticoagulant
Influence blood clotting
9
Antihyperlipidemic
Lower blood cholesterol
10
Antihypertensive
Lower blood pressure
11
Antidysrhythmic
Restore normal cardiac rhythm
12
Antianginal
Treat angina
13
What is the difference bewteen therapeutic and pharmacologic classifications:
Therapeutic classificiation refers to their therapeutic usefulness in treating a particular disease or disorder. Pharmcologic classifications refers to the way a drug works at the molecular, tissue, or body system level.
14
Identify if beta-adrenergic blocker is therapeutic or pharmacologic
Pharmacologic class
15
Identify if oral contraceptive is therapeutic or pharmacologic
therapeutic class
16
Identify if laxative is therapeutic or pharmacologic
therapetuic class
17
Identify if folic acid antagonist is therapeutic or pharmacologic
pharmacologic class
18
Identify if antianginal drugs are therapeutic or pharmacologic
therapeutic class
19
What is a prototype drug, and how does it differ from other drugs in the same class?
A prototype drug is a well-understood drug model with which other drugs in its representative class are compared. By learning the characteristics of the prototype drug, students may predict the actions and adverse effects of other drugs in the same class.
20
Explain why a patient might seek treatment from an OTC drug instead of a mroe effective prescription drug.
OTC medications do not require a doctors vist. OTC medications are readily availble and can save time and even money.
21
A generic-equivalent drug may be legally substituted for a trade-name medication unless the medication is on a negative formulary or requested by the prescriber or patient. What advantages does this substitution have for the patient? What disadvantages might be caused by the switch?
The advantages of a genetic drug include cost savings to the patient and the fact that the name will remain the same, regardless of which company makes the drug. However, becuase generic drug formularies may be different, the inert ingredients may be somewhat different and consequently may affect the ability of the drug to reach the target cells and produce an effect.
22
What are biosimilar drugs? How do they differ from generic drugs?
Biosimilar drugs are chemically synthesized drugs that are closely related to biologic medications having already received FDA approval. Unlike generic drugs, biosimilar drugs do not have to go through the same rigouroud preclinical and clinical testing. The only FDA process they must go through is to prove that the drug is safe and effective.
23
Which of the following is true about Dietary Supplements? Select all that apply.
The supplement does not have to prove effectiveness before going to market. The supplement is not tested by the FDA for safety prior to going to market. THe FDA requires the labels to be accurat about what the porduce contains. The FDA may pull a dietary supplement from teh market if good manufacturing processes were not followed or the supplement is found to pose a threat to patient safety.
24
True or False- Medical consensus suggests that Ginger may be effective for the treatment of nausea.
True
25
National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH)
Lead angency for scientific research and information about complementary and alternative medicine
26
Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER)
Excersises control over whether prescription or OTC drugs can be used for therapy
27
Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)
Regulates the safe use of serums, vaccines, and blood products
28
Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)
Monitor dietary supplements after they have gone to market
29
Preclinical investigation
Extense testing on human cells, human tissue and animals to evaluate safety and effectiveness of the drug
30
Clinical investigation
Includes three phases of drug trails, initially a small group of healthy volunteers, progressing to larger groups of volunteers with the particular condition the medication is being tested to treat
31
Review of the New Drug Application (NDA)
Takes aproximately 17 to 24 months and may happen concurrently with clincal phase III trials
32
Postmarketing Surveillance
Monitors the safety and effectiveness of the durg in the general population.
33
True or False- Potential risk of St. John's Wort include increased anticoagulation effects and CNS excitation
False
34
How does the FDA ensure the safety and effectiveness of drugs? What type of drugs does the FDA regulate or control?
The FDA excersies control over wheather prescription or OTC drugs durgs may be used for therapy.
35
What is a black box warning? Why is it important for nurses to consider these when reading drug infromation material?
A black box warning is a special alert required by the DFA to note that the drug has the potential for causing serious injury or death. Nurses should always read the warning and consider the implications for the patient prescribed that drug. The nurse should consult the healthcare provider before administering the drug is she has questions.
36
Identify opportunities the nurse has in education about, administering, and monitoring the proper use of drugs.
The nurse is responsible for the safe administration of medciation, monnitoringfor theraputic and adverse effect of those drugs, and fro providing education to patients who are taking drugs.
37
Why are certain drugs placed in schedules? What does the nurse need to know when a scheduled drug is ordered?
Schedules refer to the potential for abuse. The nurse needs to know which schedule the drug that is ordered falls into. The higher the abuse risk the more restrictions that are placed.
38
A nurse is preparing to give a patient a medication and notes that a drug to be given is marked as a Schedule III drug. What does this information tell the nurse about this medication.
A schedule III drug has a moderate abuse potential, moderate potential for physical dependency and a high potential for psychologic dependency.
39
Schedule I Drug
Highest abuse potential (Heroin)
40
Schedule II Drug
High abuse potential (Oxycodone)
41
Schedule III Drug
Moderate abuse potential (Combination products)
42
Schedule IV Drug
Lower abuse potential (Diazepam)
43
Schedule V Drug
The lowest abuse potential (cough medication)
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