m1a

If the angular momentum quantum number
l = 2, what is the type of subshell?
A. s
B. p
C. d
D. f
E. g

What is the maximum number of electrons
that can occupy the 3p subshell?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 10

In the lewis structure of H2O, how many lone
pairs of electrons are present on the oxygen
atom?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

A double bond (C = C) contains:
A. 2 sigma and 1 pi bond
B. 1 sigma bond only
C. 2 pi bonds
D. 2 sigma bonds
E. 1 sigma bond and 1 pi bond

Which element pairing forms an ionic bond, often leading to a polar compound?
A. O-O
B. N-N
C. Cl-Cl
D. Na-Cl
E. C-H

Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?
A. H2O
B. CH4
C. NH3
D. HCl
E. SO2

Combustion of hydrocarbons always produces:
A. CO + H20
B. C + H2
C. CH4 + 02
D. CO2 + H2
E. CO2 + H20

The reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid in the presence of acid catalyst to form ester and water is called:
A. Esterification
B. Neutralization
C. Elimination
D. Oxidation
E. Polymerization

Which element pairing forms an ionic bond, often leading to a polar compound?
A. 0-0
B. N-N
C. CI-CI
D. Na-Cl
E. C-H

According to Arrhenius Theory, an acid is a substance that:
A. Produces OH- ions in water
B. Produces H+ (protons) in water
C. Donates an electron pair
D. Accepts an electron pair
E. Neutralizes a base

The brick red flame in a flame test is due to:
A. Calcium
B. Barium
C. Strontium
D. Sodium
E. Potassium

The element that gives a green flame is:
A. Potassium
B. Stronium
C. Barium
D. Calcium
E. Sodium

Group Il cations (Cu2+, Cd2+, Bi3+, Pb2+, As3+, Sb3+, Sn2+) are precipitated as sulfides by passing H2S in:
A. Basic solution
B. Neutral solution
C. Acidic solution
D. Concentrated ammonia
E. Strong alkali

Group IV cations (Ba2+, Sr2+, Ca2+) are precipitated as carbonates using:
A. NaOH
B. NH4OH
C. (NH4)2CO3 in the presence of NH4Cl
D. H2SO4
E. NaCl

What is the antidote for phosphorus poisoning?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Copper sulfate
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Calcium gluconate
E. Deferoxamine

What is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?
A. setronenadonale
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Sodium chloride
:. Sodium thiosulfate

What is the common name of sulfuric acid (H2SO4)?
A. Aqua regia
B. Oil of vitriol
C. Blue vitriol
D. Red vitriol
E. Acidum hydrochloricum

What is the common name of sodium bicarbonate?
A. Soda ash
B. Baking soda
C. Pearl ash
D. Washing soda
E. Cream of tartar

What is the common name of sodium sulfate (Na2SO4)?
A. Glauber's salt
B. Rochelle sat
C. Soda ash
D. Baking soda
E. Cream of tartar

What is the common name of magnesium sulfate?
A. Rochellesalt
B. Epsom salt
C. Milk of magnesia
D. Calcinied magnesia
E. White vitriol

What element is naturally a calcium channel blocker?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Zinc
E. Barium

What element is the most abundant metal in the Earth's crust?
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. Iron
D. Calcium
E. Copper

What element is present in chlorophyll?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Magnesium
D. Manganese
E. Nickel

What flame is produced by barium compounds in pyrotechnics?
A. Green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Yellow
E. Violet

What element toxicity causes Wilson's disease?
A. Mercury
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Lead
E. Bismuth

What element deficiency causes rickets or osteomalacia?
A. Zinc
B. Calcium
C. Iron
D. Magnesium
E. Copper

What is the pharmaceutical use of zinc oxide (ZnO)?
A. Antiseptic
B. Topical protectant
C. Antidote
D. Vasodilator
E. Antihelminthic

What is the common name of ferrous sulfate?
A. White vitriol
B. Green vitriol
C. Vitriol of Mars
D. Blue vitriol
E. Oil of vitriol

What type of poisoning causes Minamata disease?
A. Arsenic
B. Cadmium
C. Mercury
D. Lead
E. Silver

What is the name of the condition caused by silver toxicity?
A. Argyria
B. Plumbism
C. Baritosis
D. Itai-itai
E. Minamata Disease

What is the second most abundant extracellular anion?
A. Chloride
B. Bicarbonate
C. Sulfate
D. Nitrate
E. Phosphate

What is the predominant intracellular cation?
A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium
E. Zinc

What is the second most abundant element on Earth?
A. Aluminum
B. Silicon
C. Carbon
D. Iron
E. Calcium

What condition is caused by bismuth toxicity?
A. Argyria
B. Plumbism
C. Blue-black gums
D. Baritosis
E. Lobster skin appearance

What is the common name of sodiu hydrogen phosphate (NaH2PO4
A. Fleet Enema
B. Soda ash
C. Pearl ash
D. Milk of magnesia
E. Rochelle salt

Theory which postulates that a receptor will always be in a state of equilibrium between active and inactive tissues
a. Macromolecular Perturbation Theory
b. Activation-Aggregation Theory
c. Rate Theory
e. Once-ly Theory

rovides 2nd pass metabolism for drug aving the live
A. Kidneys
B. GI mucosa
C. Lungs
D. Nasal Passages
E. NOTA

Which of the following Anti-TB & Anti-Leprosy drug/s cannot penetrate the cerebrospinal fluid:
A. Clofazimine
B. Streptomycin
C. Dapsone
D. Both A&B
E. Both B&C

Should be given with caution to patients with gout.
A. Aminosalicylic Acid
B. Rifampin
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethambutol
E. Pyrazinamide

MDR-TB is resistant to which of the following drugs?
A. Ethambutol & Ethionamide
B. Isoniazid & Rifampicin
C. Rifampicin & Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin & Aminosalicylic Acid
E. Pyrazinamide & Isoniazid

Rate & Ratio determines the receptor's biological response
A. Activation-Aggregation Theory
B. Macromolecular Perturbation Theory
C. Induced-fit Theory
D. Occupancy Theory
E. Rate Theory

Has lesser side effects compared to Streptomycin:
A. Neomycin Sulfate
B. Kanamycin sulfate
C. Tobramycin
D. Amikacin

Less toxic than Gentamicin
A. Kanamycin Sulfate
B. Amikacin
C. Tobramycin
D. Streptomycin

Solution of Clindamycin that can last until 32
days when refrigerated:
A. Clindamycin Phosphate
B. Clindamycin Palmitate HCI
C. Clindamycin HCI
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

Salt form of this drug prolong its duration of action
A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
B. Mezlocillin Sodium
C. Benzylpenicillin
D. Carbenicillin Indanyl Sodium
E. Isoxazoyl Penicillin

Drug that is not affected by the food and fluid volume content of the gut:
A. Clarithromycin
B. Erythromycin Estolate
C. Sythromycin Stearate
D. Erythromycin Ethylsuccinate

Which is/are side effect/s of Dapsone:
A. Optic Neuritis
B. Peripheral Neuritis
C. Peripheral Neuropathy
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

Co-administration of Pyridoxine with Isoniazid |E. NOTA induces what side effect?
A. Optic Neuritis
B. Peripheral Neuritis
C. Paraesthesias
D. Nephrotoxicity
E. NOTA

Account for the activity produced by inverse agonists:
A. Macromolecular Perturbation Theory
B. Rate Theory
C. Induced-fit theory
D. Occupancy theory
E. Activation-Aggregation Theory

Considered as the most effective drug out of a series of acyclic nucleosides which exhibits an antiviral activity but needs to be converted to its triphosphate form for it to be activated:
A. Acyclovir
A. Acyclovir
B. Idoxuridine
C. Foscarnet
D. Vidarabine
E. Trifluridine

Ampicillin + Sulbactam
A. Timentin
B. Unasyn
C. Zosyn
D. Augmentin
E. NOTA

Not effective against MRSA and it is not hydrolyzed by dehydropeptidase-l:
A. Sulbactam
B. Meropenem
C. Tazobactam
D. Imipenem
E. NOTA

A widely known side effect of Ethambutol
A. Peripheral Neuritis
B. Thrombocytopenia purpura
C. Optic Neuritis
D. Hyperuricemia
E. Paresthesia

Based on the given photo, optimal activity of Aminosalicylic acid is seen when the amino and carboxyl groups are in what position?
A. Meta position
B. Para position
C. Ortho position
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C

This drug targets Mycobacterium by inhibiting the enzyme DNA-dependent RNA polymerase:
a. Pyrazinamide
b. Streptomycin
c. Rifampin
d. Isoniazid
e. Ethambutol

A 4th generation cephalosporin:
A. Cefquinome
B. Cefexime
C. Cefotetan
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

Binds to 50s subunit and inhibits polypeptide chain elongation
A. Minocycline
B. kanamycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Erythromycin
E. NOTA

Which of the ff drug/s is/are metabolized faster by women?
A. Chlodiazepoxide
B. Caffeine
C. Diazepam
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

Which of the following is an oral cephalosporin?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cefixime
C. Cefoxitin
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C

Drug that can inhibit both Thymidylate
Synthetase & DNA Polymerase
A. Trifluridine
B. Vidarabine
C. Foscarnet
D. Desciclovir

In general, what happens to a drug if there is no presence of bulky groups?
A. Susceptible to acid degradation
B. Resistant to acid degradation
C. Susceptible to Penicillinase
D.Resistant to degradation of Penicillinase
E. NOTA

Piperacillin sodium has activity against the following except:
A. Citrobacter
B. Staphylococcus
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Proteus
E. NOTA

Group that can increase a 3rd generation Cephalosporin's affinity to transpeptidase enzyme
a. Iminomethoxy group
b. Furan ring
c. Aminothiazloe ring
d. Both A & B
e. Both B & C

What does the encircled group contribute to the drug's characteristics?
A. Resistance to Penicillinase
B. Susceptibility to Penicillinase
C. Makes the drug acid resistant
D. Makes the drug acid labile
E. NOTA

Based on the gicen drug and its MIC, which of the following choices is considered as the most potent?
A. Sparfloxacin: 0.125-0.5
B. Trovafloxacin: 0.007-0.25
C. Ciprofloxacin: 0.5-2
D. Temafloxacin: 0.5-1
E. NOTA

What is the classification of Abaacavir?
A. Protease Inhibitor
B. NNRTI
C. DNA Polymerase Inhibitor
D. Neuraminidase Inhibitor
E. NRTI

What happens to the activity of Penicillin if the carboxylic acid is modified into an ester?
A. Increase activity
B. Decrease activity
C. Inactive
D. Retain activity

Accounts for the activity produced by inverse agonists:
A. Macromolecular Perturbation Theory
B. Rate Theory
C. Induced-fit Theory
D. Activation-aggregation Theory
E. Occupancy Theory

The following are 5th generation
Cephalorsporins, except:
A. Ceftolozane
B. Ceftaroline
C. Cefotazime
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C

Cephalosporins given parenterally;
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cefixime
C. Cefprozil
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

What is used to rescue normal cells trom methotrexate toxicity?
A. MESNA
B. Leucovorin
C. Amifostine
D. Probenecio
E. Dactinomycin

5-Fluorouracil inhibits which enzyme?
A. Dihydrofolate reductase
B. Topoisomerase I
C. Thymidylate synthase
D. Topoisomerase I|
E. DNA polymerase

Which toxicity is associated with 5-fluorouracil?
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Pulmonary Fibrosis
C. Hemorrhagic Cystitis
D. Hand-foot syndrome
E. Neurotoxicity

Which plant alkaloid prevents microtubule disassembly?
A. Vincristine
B. Docetaxel
C. Irinotecan
D. Etoposide
E. Topotecan

Camptothecins (irinotecan, topotecan) inhibit which enzyme?
A. Topoisomerase |
B. Topoisomerase lI
C. DNA Polymerase
D. RNA Polymerase
E. Tyrosine kinase

Etoposide and teniposide inhibit which enzyme?
A. Topoisomerase I
B. Topoisomerase II
C. DNA Polymerase
D. Thymidylate synthase
E. Dihydrofolate reductase

Alkylating agents act mainly in which phase of the cell cycle?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. M

Which anticancer antibiotics work by intercalating into DNA and generating oxygen species?
A. Methotrexate
B. Doxorubicin
C. Busulfan
D. Vinblastine
E. Cisplatin

Evaluate the following adrenergic drug:
A. The drug can be degraded by COMT
B. The drug cannot be degraded by COMT
C. The drug can be degraded by MAO
D. The drug has more affinity to alpha receptors
E. The drug has more affinity to muscarinic receptors

Naphthoxylactic acid is a major metabolite of which of the following drugs?
A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Dobutamine
D. Terbutaline
E. Phenylephrine

Identify the type of bond exist between the pointed area:
A. Van der Waals forces of attraction
B. lonic bonding
C. Dipole-dipole attraction
D. Dipole-induced dipole attraction
E. Hydrogen bonding

Identify the type of bond exist between the pointed area:
A. Van der Waals forces of attraction
B. lonic bonding
C. Dipole-dipole attraction
D. Dipole-induced dipole attraction
E. Hydrogen bonding

Which of the following blocks muscarinic receptors?
A. Bethanecol
B. Ecothiopate
C. Atropine
D. Neostigmine
E. Pancuronium

Which of the following benzo has a duration of action of 3-8 hours
ATemazepar
B. Diazepar
C. Alprazolam
D. Oxazepam
E. Lorazepam

Whixh drug is used as nerve poisons ar ave been used in warfare and bioterroris and as agricultural insecticides?
A. Ipratropium
B. Organophosphate
C. Bethanecol
D. Benztropine
E. Atropine

Which of the following types of alcohol has the highest CNS depressant activity?

Which of the following phenothiazines has more anticholinergic activity?

Which of the ff causes extrapyramidal symptoms?
a. Olanzapine
b. Aripiprazole
c. Ziprasidone
d. Haloperidol
e. Risperidone

Which of the ff drugs share a similar chemical D. Glutethimide structure with phenobarbital?
A. Mephensin
B. Chloral hydrate
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Glutethimide
E. Diazepan

Which is the least stable direct acting cholinergic agonist?
A. Bethanecol
B. Methacholine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Carbachol
E. Pilocarpine

Which drugs block muscarinic receptors?