Civ Pro Final Exam

280 flashcardsby Olivia
Study these flashcardsFree · spaced repetition · iPhone, Android, Mac & web

All cards

1
What's the difference between General and Limited Jurisdiction?
State courts have general jurisdiction (all types of cases); federal courts have limited jurisdiction (only cases Congress permits by statute)
2
What's the difference between Original and Appellate Jurisdiction?
Original jurisdiction means the court is the first to hear a case; appellate jurisdiction means the court hears the case on appeal.
3
What's the difference between Exclusive and Concurrent Jurisdiction?
Exclusive jurisdiction means the case can only be heard in one system (State OR Federal); concurrent jurisdiction means the case can be heard in either system.
4
What does diversity in jurisdiction involve?
Parties from different states.
5
What is a complaint in legal terms?
A legal document explaining the legal wrongs the plaintiff suffered or alleges to have suffered.
6
What is a claim or cause of action?
An allegation made within a complaint.
7
What is an answer or defense?
A legal document with the defendant's response to a complaint that does not entitle them to a remedy.
8
What is a counterclaim?
A claim included in a defendant’s answer that acts as a rebuttal against the plaintiff.
9
What the 3 elements included in "Federal Law"?
The Federal Constitution, Federal Treaties, and Federal Statutes (including their interpretations).
10
What is coercive relief?
Money or an injunction.
11
What is a declaratory judgment?
A court declaration of rights or liabilities without awarding money or an injunction.
12
What is minimum diversity in jurisdiction?
At least one party on one side must have citizenship in a different U.S. state from at least one party on the opposite side.
13
What is required for Federal subject matter jurisdiction (SMJ)?
The claim must satisfy 1331, 1332, or 1367 SMJ.
14
What is the rule for 1331 SMJ?
There is SMJ over a claim if it arises under federal law; federal defenses alone are insufficient.
15
What does general SMJ mean for state courts?
State courts can hear all types of cases as the default system.
16
What does limited SMJ mean for federal courts?
Federal courts can only hear cases Congress permits by statute.
17
When does a court have original SMJ?
When it is the first court to hear the case (trial court).
18
When does a court have appellate SMJ?
When it hears a case on appeal after a judgment by another court.
19
What is exclusive SMJ?
When a case can only be heard in one system, typically in federal court.
20
What is concurrent SMJ?
When a case can be heard in either state or federal court, but the federal court must hear it if the plaintiff chooses federal jurisdiction.
21
What does the WPC rule apply to?
Any pleading with a claim (claims, counterclaims...but NOT defenses)
22
What are the four steps to identify a Well-Plead Complaint (WPC)?
(1) Identify the claim and its elements; (2) Determine the alleged facts; (3) Find the Federal issue alleged; (4) See if the Federal issue matches an element of the claim.
23
What is "centrality" in relation to jurisdiction?
The Federal Law must be central to the claim, not the anticipated Federal defense.
24
When does a Federal claim satisfy 1331 SMJ?
When it satisfies both WPC and centrality requirements.
25
Can Federal claims be heard in State Courts?
Yes, unless the case is exclusive to Federal Courts.
26
What is the rule for declaratory judgment (DJ) and SMJ?
A DJ claim has 1331 SMJ if the potential coercive relief claim involves a Federal question.
27
What is minimal diversity under Article III?
Any one party has citizenship in a different U.S. state from a party on the opposite side.
28
What is complete diversity under 1332?
All plaintiffs must have different state citizenships from all defendants at the time of filing.
29
What is the citizenship rule for corporations?
A corporation's citizenship is its state of incorporation and its principal place of business (PPB).
30
What test determines a corporation's principal place of business (PPB)?
The Nerve Center Test.
31
What is the rule for unincorporated entities' citizenship?
Unincorporated entities take the citizenships of all their individual members.
32
What is the citizenship rule for legal representatives?
They assume the citizenship of the person they represent.
33
What is the rule for U.S. citizens domiciled abroad?
They are not 1332 citizens and cannot sue or be sued under 1332 SMJ.
34
What is the permanent resident bar under 1332?
If a permanent resident is domiciled in the same state as a citizen on the opposite side, 1332 SMJ is barred.
35
What is the rule for the amount in controversy (AIC)?
The AIC is met if damages exceed $75,000, unless it is legally certain that the amount cannot be recovered.
36
What is aggregation in AIC?
A plaintiff's claims against one defendant can be aggregated to meet the AIC, even if unrelated. Aggregation is possible with more than one plaintiff when there is more than one plaintiff and only one defendant in a case.

37
When is supplemental SMJ allowed under 1367?
If there is a Federal anchor claim with a common nucleus of fact (CNOF) and no 1367(b) or Exxon bar applies.
38
What is the 1367(b) bar?
It prevents supplemental SMJ in diversity cases for claims by the original plaintiff against added defendants lacking diversity or AIC.
39
What is the Exxon bar?
It applies in diversity cases when a co-plaintiff's claim fails complete diversity but meets AIC.
40
What are non-monetary damages in AIC cases?
Injunctions, where the court orders the defendant to stop certain actions.
41
When does the 1367(b) bar not apply?
When there is at least one 1331 claim in the case.
42
What does the Exxon bar restrict?
Supplemental SMJ for co-plaintiff claims lacking complete diversity in diversity-only cases.
43
What is required for a defendant to remove a case from State to Federal Court?
A defendant may remove a case if there is Federal SMJ over claims in the complaint (or if there is 1331 and State SMJ) and removal is procedurally proper (PP).
44
Who can remove a case from State to Federal Court?
Only the defendant can remove a case to Federal Court, since the plaintiff chose the original court to file in and had the option to file in Federal Court.
45
What must a defendant do after filing a Notice of Removal?
The defendant must also give written notice to all adverse parties and file a copy of the notice in State Court.
46
What is the time limit for filing a Notice of Removal?
A Notice of Removal must be filed within 30 days after receiving the document that makes the case removabl, such as the addition of a claim with Federal SMJ.
47
Is the Notice of Removal considered a motion?
No, the Notice of Removal is not a motion; it is simply a notification to the court and adverse parties. No court action is needed.
48
What happens if a case is improperly removed?
The case may be remanded back to State Court, and the lawyer who signed the Notice of Removal may face sanctions.
49
When is removal procedurally proper?
Removal is procedurally proper if it is timely, the case is moved to the correct court, all defendants consented to removal, there is no In-State Defendant Bar, and there is no One-Year Bar (applicable only to 1332 claims).
50
What documents can make a case removable?
Documents such as amended complaints, motions, orders, or other papers can make a case removable.
51
Where must a case be removed to?
A case must be removed to the Federal Court geographically encompassing the State Court where the complaint was filed.
52
What is required for removal when there are multiple defendants?
All properly joined and served defendants must consent to removal.
53
When does the In-State Defendant Bar apply?
The In-State Defendant Bar applies if any defendant is a citizen of the forum state in cases solely based on 1332 claims.
54
What is the One-Year Bar for removal?
The One-Year Bar prevents removal of cases based solely on 1332 SMJ if more than one year has passed since the case was filed unless the plaintiff acted in bad faith to prevent removal.
55
How can plaintiffs prevent removal under 1441(b)?
Plaintiffs can prevent removal by filing only state law claims or by avoiding 1332 SMJ through non-diverse defendants or claims below the AIC threshold.
56
When is a Motion to Remand procedurally proper?
A Motion to Remand is procedurally proper if filed within 30 days of the Notice of Removal for procedural defects, or any time before final judgment for lack of SMJ.
57
What happens if a removed case lacks Federal SMJ?
If a removed case lacks Federal SMJ, it must be remanded back to State Court rather than dismissed.
58
What does personal jurisdiction (PJ) refer to?
Personal jurisdiction refers to a court’s power to make a final judgment over the parties.
59
What is the purpose of General PJ?
To provide the plaintiff a forum where they have PJ for all their claims, even if the defendant's contacts with the state are unrelated to the claim.
60
Where does General PJ exist over an individual?
In their state of domicile or where they have such systematic and continuous contacts that they are deemed "at home."
61
What does General PJ permit?
It allows the defendant to be sued for anything where they have General PJ.
62
What are the rules for General PJ over a corporation?
It exists in states where the corporation has systematic and continuous contacts, such as its state of incorporation or principal place of business (PPB).
63
How can a party consent to PJ in a forum state?
Through express consent, such as a contract clause, or impliedly by failing to challenge PJ in a timely manner.
64
What is a choice of forum clause?
A clause allowing parties to select the forum for future litigation, operating as express consent to PJ in that court.
65
What is a choice of law clause?
A clause allowing parties to select the substantive law applied to disputes but does not consent to PJ.
66
What is Tag PJ?
It applies when a defendant is served in the forum state, provided they were not fraudulently lured there or present solely for a legal proceeding.
67
What are exceptions to Tag PJ?
It does not apply to corporations or to individuals attending a legal proceeding or present as a witness.
68
What is Specific PJ?
PJ that exists if the defendant falls under the forum state’s long-arm statute, and exercising PJ is constitutional.
69
What are the two requirements for Specific PJ?
The defendant must fit under the forum state’s long-arm statute and meet constitutional standards.
70
What case introduced the framework for Specific PJ?
The International Shoe case.
71
What does a long-arm statute do?
It allows a forum state to exercise jurisdiction over a non-resident defendant.
72
What is the difference between enumerated and non-enumerated long-arm statutes?
Enumerated statutes list specific scenarios for PJ, while non-enumerated statutes go to the constitutional maximum.
73
What is the rule for constitutional PJ?
A forum state can exercise PJ if the defendant has minimum contacts related to the claim and it does not offend notions of fair play and substantial justice (FPSJ).
74
What are minimum contacts?
Contacts where the defendant purposefully avails themselves of the forum state, relating to the claim, such that they can foresee being hauled into court there.
75
What is the significance of "foreseeability" in minimum contacts?
The defendant must foresee that their actions in the forum state could result in a legal claim there.
76
What is "purposeful availment"?
When the defendant intentionally targets the forum state, establishing contacts related to the claim.
77
What is the SOC+ test?
A standard assessing if indirect contacts (e.g., via a distributor) establish minimum contacts through purposeful availment.
78
What does FPSJ consider?
Whether exercising PJ over the defendant is fair, focusing on the burden on the defendant, the plaintiff's interest, and the forum's interest.
79
What factors determine the burden on the defendant under FPSJ?
Distance, lack of legal representation, language barriers, or foreign legal systems may create an undue burden.
80
What factors determine the plaintiff's interest under FPSJ?
The plaintiff's residence, the location of evidence and witnesses, and where the injury occurred.
81
What factors determine the forum's interest under FPSJ?
The state’s interest in protecting its citizens, applying its laws, or addressing injuries occurring within its boundaries.
82
What case violated FPSJ and why?
Asahi, due to undue burden on the Japanese defendant, limited plaintiff interest, and lack of forum interest in resolving the case.
83
What is the holding of the International Shoe case?
Systematic and continuous contacts in the forum state satisfied minimum contacts, making PJ constitutional.
84
Venue is assessed per...
Case.
85
What does venue determine?
Venue determines which district court the plaintiff can file in.
86
What happens if there is a lack of proper venue?
The case can be dismissed, or the court can transfer the case to a proper venue.
87
Does the Constitution require venue?
No, venue is not required by the Constitution.
88
What is a judicial district?
A defined area within a state that hosts at least one district court.
89
What happens if venue is proper in a Federal district?
Then it is proper in all divisions within that district.
90
What is the residency provision?
If all defendants reside in the same state, venue is proper in any district where at least one defendant resides.
91
How is venue determined for permanent resident aliens?
Venue is proper wherever the permanent resident alien is domiciled.
92
How is venue determined for illegal aliens?
Illegal aliens are not considered to reside in the U.S. for venue purposes.
93
What determines venue under the substantial acts provision?
Venue is proper in a district where substantial acts related to the claim occurred, like where a product was made or an accident happened.
94
What is the fallback provision in venue?
If no venue exists under residency or substantial acts provisions, venue is proper in any district with personal jurisdiction over defendants.
95
Can a non-U.S. resident be sued in any judicial district?
Yes, but there must be SMJ and PJ.
96
What happens if the initial venue is improper?
The court can either transfer the case to a proper venue or dismiss it.
97
What is Rule 4’s primary purpose?
To ensure the defendant is properly notified of a lawsuit.
98
Who can serve a defendant under Rule 4?
A non-party over the age of 18.
99
What are the methods of service on individuals under Rule 4(e)?
Personal service, abode service, agent service, or any method authorized by relevant state law.
100
What is personal service?
The process server physically hands the complaint and summons to the defendant anywhere in the U.S.
101
What is abode service?
Serving a person of suitable age and discretion at the defendant’s dwelling or usual place of abode.
102
Who can receive agent service under Rule 4?
An authorized agent of the individual or entity.
103
What are the requirements for waiving service under Rule 4(d)?
Plaintiff sends a request including the complaint, waiver form, and pre-paid return method via reliable means.
104
What advantage does waiving service give a defendant?
More time to respond to the complaint, specifically 60 days instead of 20 days.
105
Does a constitutional method of notice guarantee proper service under Rule 4?
No, even if notice is constitutional, it must still comply with Rule 4 for proper service.
106
What are the 2 conditions under which due process is satisfied for notice, making it constitutional?
1) The method is reasonably certain to inform relevant parties, or 2) It is not substantially less likely to provide notice than customary alternatives.
107
What was the issue in Mullane regarding notice?
The bank published notice in a local newspaper, including for beneficiaries whose addresses were known.
108
What was the holding in Mullane about notice by publication?
Notice by publication is constitutional for unknown beneficiaries but not for those whose names and addresses are known.
109
Why is notice by First-Class Mail constitutional?
It is reasonably certain to inform, as long as it is not returned to sender.
110
Why is certified mail constitutional?
It is constitutional because the recipient must sign for it, ensuring receipt.
111
Under what condition is notice by publication constitutional?
It is constitutional if it meets the second option for due process, being the best feasible alternative for unknown parties.
112
What is a pleading that states a claim for relief?
It is a pleading that includes a claim, always requires a response, and is addressed to the opposing party or co-counsel.
113
What is a responsive pleading?
A pleading that responds to or defends against a claim.
114
What is a motion?
A request for a court order, filed in writing, stating the relief sought and its basis, which can be made for anything.
115
What does filing refer to?
Giving the document to the court for an official record of the case.
116
What does serving mean in legal terms?
Providing a copy of the complaint to all relevant parties.
117
How is a lawsuit commenced under Rule 3?
A lawsuit is commenced by filing a complaint with the court.
118
What does Rule 7 govern?
Pleadings and motions, specifying that motions need a memo explaining the law, while pleadings do not.
119
What are the two major categories of pleadings in federal court?
Complaints and answers.
120
What pleadings are allowed in federal court?
Complaints, answers to complaints, answers to counterclaims, answers to crossclaims, third-party complaints, and answers to third-party complaints.
121
Can a plaintiff respond to an answer that only raises an affirmative defense?
No, unless the court orders a reply to the answer.
122
What is the difference between motions and pleadings?
Motions ask the court to issue an order and are not pleadings, while pleadings state claims or defenses.
123
What are the requirements for a motion?
A motion must be in writing unless made during a hearing or trial, state with particularity the grounds for seeking the order, and specify the relief sought.
124
What must a claim for relief include under Rule 8?
A short and plain statement of jurisdiction, a short and plain statement of the claim showing entitlement to relief, and a demand for the relief sought.
125
What are three ways to fail to state a claim?
1) No claim recognized by law, 2) Pleaded facts preclude recovery, 3) Missing an essential element of the claim.
126
What is the plausibility standard in a complaint?
A complaint must have sufficient concrete facts to show a reasonable inference that the plaintiff may recover.
127
What happens if a defendant fails to answer a complaint within the required time?
The defendant will be in default, and a judgment can be entered against them.
128
What defenses can a Rule 12(b) Motion to Dismiss include?
(1) Lack of SMJ (never waived), (2) lack of PJ, (3) improper venue, (4) insufficient process, (5) insufficient service of process, (6) failure to state a claim, and (7) failure to join a necessary (Rule 19) party.
129
When are Rule 12(b)(2)-(5) defenses waived?
If omitted in a pre-answer motion or not included in the answer or amended answer as a matter of course.
130
What does a Rule 12(c) Motion for Judgment on the Pleadings ask the court to do?
Decide based on the pleadings whether any party is entitled to judgment without further pleadings.
131
What is a Rule 12(e) Motion for a More Definite Statement?
A request to make a vague or ambiguous pleading more specific.
132
What is the purpose of a Rule 12(f) Motion to Strike?
To remove insufficient defenses, redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous matter from a pleading.
133
What must be included in every court document under Rule 10?
A caption with the court's name, case title, file number, and the type of pleading designation.
134
What is required of attorneys under Rule 11?
They must sign pleadings and motions, include contact information, and certify that filings are not for improper purposes and are factually and legally supported.
135
What happens if a document violates Rule 11?
The court may impose sanctions, which can include monetary penalties or other corrective measures.
136
What is the time limit for serving a responsive pleading under Rule 12(a)?
A defending party must serve an answer within 21 days after being served with the summons and complaint.
137
What are the sanctions under Rule 11(c)?
Sanctions may include monetary penalties or non-monetary penalties, imposed if violations are not corrected after notice.
138
What is the time frame to file a Rule 12 Motion to Dismiss (MTD)?
A Rule 12 MTD must be filed within 21 days after being served, but before a timely answer.
139
What happens if a Rule 12(b)(2)-(5) defense is omitted in a pre-answer motion?
It is waived and cannot be raised again.
140
When can a Rule 12(b)(6)-(7) defense be asserted?
In a pre-answer motion, in a responsive pleading, or at trial.
141
What is the consequence of waiving a Rule 12(b) defense?
If a defense is waived, it cannot be raised again, even if it is valid.
142
If amended pleadings replace original pleadings, how much time does a party have to respond?
14 days to respond to the amended pleadings.
143
What are the three ways a pleading can be amended under Rule 15(a)?
1) As a matter of course, 2) With the consent of other parties, 3) With permission from the court.
144
How long does a party have to amend a pleading as a matter of course?
21 days after the pleading is filed.
145
Can a Rule 12(b)(2)-(5) defense be raised in an amended answer made as a matter of course?
Yes, even if it was available but not made in the original answer.
146
What is the "Bonus Freebie Period" for amending pleadings?
A party can amend a pleading 21 days after the service of their responsive pleading or 21 days after the service of a Rule 12 motion, whichever is earlier.
147
What must a party do to amend a pleading after the time to amend as a matter of course has expired?
They need permission from the court or consent from other parties.
148
What factors are considered under the Foman factors for allowing an amendment?
Futility, undue prejudice, undue delay, and bad faith.
149
When is a claim considered futile?
If it lacks a rule basis, lacks subject matter jurisdiction, the statute of limitations has expired, or it is implausible or precluded.
150
When is a defense considered futile?
If it is waived or substantively inadequate.
151
What is the most important factor in determining whether to grant a Motion to Amend (MTA)?
Futility; if an amendment is futile, the court will deny the MTA.
152
What is the Rule 15(c) "Relation Back" doctrine?
It allows a new claim or defense to be treated as if it was filed on the date of the original pleading.
153
What is required for a new claim to relate back under Rule 15(c)?
It must arise out of the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence set out in the original pleading.
154
When can a party amend to change the name of a party after the statute of limitations has run?
When the amendment arises out of the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence, and the newly named defendant had actual notice and knew or should have known the lawsuit was meant for them.
155
What constitutes undue prejudice to a non-movant?
The non-movant does not have adequate time to prepare for trial.
156
What constitutes undue prejudice to a movant?
The movant will be unable to bring the claim in a subsequent litigation.
157
What constitutes undue delay?
When a movant fails to assert a claim when it reasonably became available or intentionally delays close to trial.
158
What constitutes bad faith in seeking leave to amend?
When the movant seeks to amend to intimidate the non-movant, delay the case, or increase litigation costs to force settlement.
159
What does Rule 15(c) allow when the statute of limitations has run out?
It allows a party to use the time the case was originally filed to relate back to the original pleading.
160
Joinder rules can be used during which phases of a lawsuit?
Original pleadings or discovery.
161
What does claim joinder require?
Subject Matter Jurisdiction (SMJ).
162
What does party joinder require?
Personal Jurisdiction (PJ).
163
What is the first step for joinder?
Check if rules allow or require the claim or party to join the lawsuit.
164
What is the second step for joinder?
Check if the Federal Court can hear the case.
165
What does Rule 18 allow?
Any party with a claim permitted under another rule to add as many claims as it has.
166
Does Rule 18 require the same legal theory or factual basis for claims?
No.
167
What is required for every claim under Rule 18?
Subject Matter Jurisdiction (SMJ).
168
What does Rule 13 address?
Claim joinder by defendants.
169
What is a counterclaim under Rule 13?
A claim against an opposing party at the time the claim is asserted.
170
What is a crossclaim under Rule 13?
A claim against a co-party who is not currently an opposing party.
171
What is the test to determine if events arise from the same transaction or occurrence?
Logically connected facts and consideration of judicial economy and fairness.
172
What happens if a Rule 13(a) compulsory counterclaim is not asserted?
It is waived and cannot be brought in subsequent suits.
173
What is a Rule 13(b) permissive counterclaim?
A claim unrelated to the same transaction or occurrence as the existing claims.
174
Can a permissive counterclaim be waived?
No, it is not waived if not brought.
175
What is a Rule 13(g) crossclaim?
A claim against a co-party arising out of the same transaction or occurrence as the original claim or counterclaim.
176
Is asserting a Rule 13(g) crossclaim mandatory?
No, it is permissive.
177
What does Rule 20 allow for plaintiffs?
Permissive joinder of parties based on the same transaction or occurrence and common questions of law or fact.
178
What does Rule 14 permit for defendants?
Impleader of a non-party who may be liable to the original defendant.
179
What is the deadline for impleading a non-party under Rule 14?
Within 14 days of serving the original answer, unless the court grants permission.
180
What does Rule 19 address?
Required joinder of parties to avoid prejudice.
181
What happens if a required party under Rule 19 cannot be joined?
The court decides whether to dismiss the case or proceed without the party.
182
What does Rule 24 allow for non-parties?
Intervention in a lawsuit.
183
What are the two types of Rule 24 intervention?
Intervention of rights and permissive intervention.
184
What must a motion for intervention include under Rule 24(c)?
A proposed pleading or motion to intervene.
185
What is claim preclusion?
A defense that bars a claim if it was previously asserted with the same parties, the same configuration, and had a final valid judgment on the merits in the prior suit.
186
When does claim preclusion apply?
When the claim is the same as in a prior suit, involves the same parties or privity, and had a final valid judgment on the merits.
187
What makes two claims the "same"?
Claims are the "same" if they arise from the same transaction or occurrence (T/O) regardless of legal theory or relief sought.
188
What is the logical relation test?
It evaluates whether claims are factually and logically related, thus arising from the same transaction or occurrence.
189
How does claim preclusion apply in contract cases?
All breaches of a contract that occur before a breach claim is filed arise from the same T/O for claim preclusion purposes.
190
Who must be involved in both suits for claim preclusion to apply?
The same parties or individuals in privity in the same configuration must be involved.
191
What is privity in the context of claim preclusion?
A legal relationship where one party in the first suit adequately represented the legal interests of another in the second suit.
192
What is an example of privity?
A successor to a property interest or an agent representing a person.
193
What does not constitute privity?
Marriage or merely being in the same situation.
194
What is required for a judgment to be valid?
The court must have subject matter jurisdiction (SMJ) and personal jurisdiction (PJ) over the defendant.
195
When is a judgment considered final?
When the case has concluded and only actions like collecting money or appealing remain.
196
What constitutes a judgment on the merits?
A judgment based on substantive issues, not procedural flaws like lack of jurisdiction or venue.
197
How does claim preclusion differ from compulsory counterclaims?
Claim preclusion bars reasserting claims; compulsory counterclaims bar asserting unasserted claims arising from the same T/O in Federal Courts.
198
What does issue preclusion, or collateral estoppel, prevent?
It bars relitigation of an issue that was previously litigated, decided, and essential to a valid, final judgment.
199
When does issue preclusion apply?
If the issue is the same as a prior suit, was litigated, decided, essential to the judgment, and involves the same parties or those in privity.
200
What is the Parklane test used for?
To determine whether a plaintiff can use offensive non-mutual issue preclusion against a prior defendant.
201
What are the Parklane factors?
Prior inconsistent judgments, inadequate incentive to litigate previously, "wait and see" tactics, and dramatically different procedures.
202
When is defensive non-mutual issue preclusion allowed?
It is always allowed if a new defendant uses it in the second suit against a party from the first suit.
203
What does it mean for an issue to be actually litigated?
The issue was contested in court and decided by a judge or jury.
204
Does summary judgment count as actual litigation?
Yes, summary judgment is considered actual litigation.
205
Does settling count as actual litigation?
No, settling does not count as actual litigation.
206
What does it mean for an issue to be decided?
It means the judge or jury made a resolution on the issue during the prior suit.
207
When is an issue considered essential?
If deciding the issue differently would have changed the outcome of the prior judgment.
208
What is the alternative holding rule?
If a court provides multiple independent reasons for a decision, none of them are considered essential for issue preclusion.
209
What is the rule for the scope of discovery?
Information is discoverable if it is relevant to any claim or defense, proportional to the needs of the case, and regarding non-privileged matters.
210
Does information need to be admissible in court to be discoverable?
No, it does not need to be admissible in court to be within the scope of discovery.
211
What can the court do with a protective order?
The court may limit discovery to prevent undue burden, annoyance, embarrassment, harassment, or oppression, and may prohibit inquiry into certain matters or limit the use of devices or disclosures.
212
What does "relevant" mean in the scope of discovery?
Information must relate to any party’s claims or defenses to be considered relevant.
213
What is considered when determining if discovery is proportional?
The importance of the issues, the amount in controversy, relative access to information, importance in resolving issues, and whether the burden or expense outweighs the benefit.
214
What does it mean for information to be non-privileged?
Non-privileged information can be disclosed in discovery because it is not protected by rules encouraging candid communication between certain parties.
215
What is the purpose of the discovery planning conference?
To resolve potential disputes, determine discovery needs, and create a discovery plan for the judge to issue a scheduling order.
216
What must parties submit after the discovery planning conference?
A written report within 14 days after the conference.
217
What is Rule 26(g) about?
It regulates conduct through certification, preventing excessive discovery requests or evasive responses, and reminding lawyers of their professional obligations.
218
What must be disclosed under Rule 26(a)(1)?
Names and contact information, documents, computations of damages, and insurance agreements.
219
What is the purpose of a request for admissions under Rule 36?
To narrow disputes by asking the opposing party to admit certain facts as true.
220
What happens if a party fails to respond to a request for admission within 30 days?
The matter is deemed admitted.
221
What is the limit on interrogatories under Rule 33?
A party may send up to 25 interrogatories, including subparts, to another party.
222
What must a party do when responding to an interrogatory?
Answer in writing under oath, or produce documents containing the requested information.
223
What can a party request under Rule 34?
Documents, electronic information, access to property, or other tangible things within the scope of discovery.
224
What is required in response to a request for documents under Rule 34?
The requested documents must be produced or identified in a written and signed response within 30 days.
225
What is the purpose of a deposition under Rule 30?
To obtain oral testimony under oath from parties or non-parties.
226
What is the limit on depositions per side?
Each side is limited to 10 depositions unless otherwise agreed or ordered by the court.
227
What is required for a mental or physical exam under Rule 35?
Court permission is required, and the requesting party must file a motion for good cause.
228
What is the purpose of a motion for a protective order?
To protect parties from discovery causing annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense.
229
What must a party show before filing a motion for a protective order?
That they tried in good faith to resolve the issue with the opposing party.
230
What is a motion to compel (MTC)?
A request for the court to order the disclosure or discovery of information when the opposing party has failed to comply.
231
What sanctions can a court impose for failure to comply with a motion to compel?
The court can impose sanctions, including entering a default judgment against the non-compliant party.
232
What is privileged information in discovery?
Information is privileged if it is a confidential communication of a protected relationship or a protected work product.
233
What is the purpose of privilege in legal contexts?
To encourage communication within special relationships without fear of discovery.
234
What are the four privileged relationships?
Attorney-Client, Doctor-Patient, Priest-Penitent, and Spousal.
235
What is the clawback provision used for?
To address mistakenly disclosed privileged or work product information by notifying the receiving party, who must destroy or sequester it.
236
What must be shown to invoke attorney-client privilege?
An attorney-client relationship, a communication kept confidential, and the purpose of obtaining or providing legal advice.
237
How is attorney-client privilege applied to corporations?
It applies if the communication was needed for legal advice, within the employee's duties, and treated as confidential.
238
What qualifies someone as a client?
A client is someone who reasonably believes an attorney-client relationship exists, even without a formal agreement.
239
What qualifies someone as an attorney for privilege purposes?
Someone authorized to practice law or reasonably believed by the client to be authorized.
240
What types of communication are protected under attorney-client privilege?
Both oral and written communications, but not underlying facts, pre-existing documents, or objects.
241
When does confidentiality remain intact for attorney-client communications?
When reasonable precautions are taken to prevent others from overhearing, even if eavesdroppers are present.
242
What is the primary purpose of a privileged legal communication?
To receive or provide legal advice, whether for litigation or non-litigation purposes.
243
What is work product under Rule 26(b)(3)?
A document or tangible thing prepared in anticipation of litigation by or for a party or its representative.
244
What is opinion work product?
Opinions, mental impressions, or legal theories of a party's representative, which are absolutely immune from discovery.
245
What is factual work product?
Tangible things other than opinion work product, prepared for litigation, discoverable only with substantial need and no alternative means.
246
What is required to overcome work product immunity?
The information must be otherwise discoverable, with substantial need shown, and no substantial equivalent available without undue hardship.
247
What is considered a substantial equivalent to work product?
A deposition or alternative source that provides similar information without violating privilege.
248
What is a Movant in the context of a Motion for Summary Judgment?
The party who files a Motion for Summary Judgment (MSJ), which can be any party or the judge on their own.
249
What does the Legal Burden of Proof represent?
It represents how convincing a party needs to be at trial, with higher burdens requiring more proof.
250
What is a Motion for Summary Judgment (MSJ)?
A motion asking the court to deliver a judgment without a trial.
251
Can a Motion for Summary Judgment end a case before trial?
Yes, it can be a dispositive motion, but it does not always end the case.
252
What is the general rule for filing a Motion for Summary Judgment?
A Summary Judgment motion can be filed by either party or the court and is granted if there is no genuine dispute of material fact, and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.
253
Can a party file for summary judgment on part of a case?
Yes, a party can seek summary judgment on one claim, part of a claim, or part of a defense.
254
When is a Motion for Summary Judgment typically filed?
Near the end of the discovery stage, within 30 days of discovery ending unless state statutes set a different timeline.
255
What evidence is a Motion for Summary Judgment based on?
Only admissible evidence such as transcripts, affidavits, depositions, contracts, or admissions—not pleadings like complaints or answers.
256
What is the standard for granting a Motion for Summary Judgment?
The movant must show there is no genuine dispute of any material fact and that they are entitled to judgment as a matter of law.
257
What is a material fact in the context of summary judgment?
A fact that might affect the outcome of the suit under the governing law.
258
When is there a genuine dispute of material fact?
When evidence is such that a reasonable jury could find for either the plaintiff or the defendant.
259
What happens if the court finds a genuine dispute of material fact?
The case must go to a jury, as they decide credibility and weigh evidence.
260
What can an opposing party do to counter a Motion for Summary Judgment?
They can file a brief in opposition, presenting contradictory evidence to show a genuine dispute of material fact.
261
What is Rule 56(a) regarding summary judgment?
Summary judgment shall be granted if there is no genuine dispute of material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.
262
What is Rule 56(b) regarding the timing to file an MSJ?
An MSJ can be filed at any time until 30 days after the close of all discovery, unless modified by the court.
263
What is Rule 56(c) regarding evidence for summary judgment?
The court considers material in the record, such as discovery materials, affidavits, or stipulations, but not pleadings.
264
What should affidavits include for a Motion for Summary Judgment?
They must be based on personal knowledge, set out admissible facts, and show the affiant is competent to testify.
265
What can a judge do under Rule 56(f)?
A judge can grant summary judgment on their own, provided the parties are given a reasonable amount of time to respond.
266
What does the Erie Doctrine address?
It answers whether a Federal Court should apply Federal or relevant State Law, typically in diversity cases.
267
What is Vertical Choice of Law?
The decision of whether to apply Federal or State Law in a case.
268
What is Horizontal Choice of Law?
The decision of which State's law to apply in a case.
269
What is the Rules Enabling Act (REA)?
It authorizes the Supreme Court to create the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP).
270
What is the Rules of Decision Act (RDA)?
It instructs Federal Courts to use State Law in diversity cases.
271
When should the Erie Doctrine be analyzed?
Only when in Federal Court and there is an arguable conflict between State and Federal Law.
272
What is the first step in applying the Erie Doctrine?
Determine if there is an arguable conflict between State and Federal Law.
273
How is a conflict between Federal and State Law determined?
Identify both relevant laws and check if applying State Law would lead to a different outcome than Federal Law.
274
What is the test for a Federal Statute under the Erie Doctrine?
A Federal Statute trumps State Law if Congress acted constitutionally.
275
What must be true for a Federal Statute to override State Law?
It must have been validly enacted by Congress within constitutional limits and arguably procedural.
276
What is the test for a Federal Rule under the REA?
The rule must be arguably procedural, valid, and not abridge substantive rights more than incidentally.
277
Has the Supreme Court ever invalidated a Federal Rule under the REA?
No, Federal Rules of Civil Procedure have always been presumed valid.
278
What does the Federal Practice (RDA) test focus on?
It considers whether Federal Practice, not written in the Constitution or statute, promotes forum shopping or inequitable administration of laws.
279
What are the RDA's "Twin Aims"?
To prevent forum shopping from State to Federal Courts and avoid inequitable administration of laws.
280
What happens if failing to apply State Law causes forum shopping or inequity?
The Federal Court must apply State Law.
Study all 280 cards for free