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Chemistry

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1
Q.1. Identify whether the given
statements about ionisation energy are
correct or incorrect.
Statement A:
The ionisation energy of an atom is the
amount of energy that is required to
remove an electron from a mole of
atoms in the gas phase.
Statement B:
The ionisation energy increases from top
to bottom in groups and decreases from
left to right across a period.
  • Only Statement A is correct
  • Only Statement B is correct
  • Both Statements A and B are correct
  • Both Statements A and B are
    incorrect
2
Q2. In which year did Carl Anderson discover a positively charged particle called "positron" whose mass appears to be equal to the mass of an electron?
  • 1932
  • 1912
  • 1922
  • 1942
3
Q3. In which year did Niels Bohr propose a theory for the hydrogen atom based on the quantum theory that some physical quantities take only discrete values?
  • 1913
  • 1919
  • 1921
  • 1909
4
Q4. Which are the four quantum numbers for an electron present in 4f orbital?
  • n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +1/2.
  • n = 3, l = -2, m = - 2, s = + 1/2
  • n = 4, l = -4, m = - 4, s = - 1/2
  • n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = + 1 /2
5
Q5. The correct electronic configuration of Cu is:
  • [Ar]3d¹⁰ 4s¹
  • [Ar]3d⁹ 4s³
  • [Kr]3d⁹ 4s²
  • [Kr]3d¹⁰ 4s¹
6
Q6. What does it mean when an object has a positive charge?
  • It has more protons than electrons
  • It has more electrons than protons
  • It has more neutrons than electrons
  • It has more neutrons than protons
7
Q7. What is the relative charge of a proton and neutron?
  • +1 and 0 respectively
  • -1 and +1 respectively
  • +1 and -1 respectively
  • -1 and 0 respectively
8
Q.8. Which of the following pairs of
'number - composition' is correct?
I. Atomic number - number of protons
II. Mass number - Sum of number of
neutrons and protons
  • Both I and II
  • Only I
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only II
9
Q9. What is the atomic mass of sodium?
  • 23
  • 40
  • 12
  • 32
10
Q10. Which of the following is the correct representation of the number of atoms?
  • (Given mass / Molar mass) × Avogadro number
11
Q11. What is the maximum number of electrons that the third orbit or M-shell can have?
  • 18
  • 32
  • 8
  • 2
12
Q12. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Rutherford's nuclear model of an atom?
  • The size of the nucleus is very large as compared to the size of the atom.
  • The electrons revolve around the
    nucleus in circular paths.
  • There is a positively charged centre in
    an atom called the nucleus.
  • Nearly all the mass of an atom
    resides in the nucleus.
13
Q13. Which of the following pairs of 'elements - valency' is correct? I. Boron - 2 II. Fluorine - 3
  • Neither I nor II.
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
  • Only I
14
Q14. Which theory discusses the relationship between ligand bonding and degradation of d orbitals in metal complexes and the geometry of metal complexes and the splitting of d orbitals?
  • Crystal field theory.
  • Ligand field theory (LFT)
  • Valence bond theory (VBT)
  • Molecular orbital theory (MOT)
15
Q15. What kind of forces arise from transient dipoles in atoms that induce transient dipoles in nearby atoms, produce an attractive force and are significant only over short distances (~500 pm)?
  • London dispersion forces.
  • Dipole-dipole forces
  • Dipole-induced dipole forces
  • Hydrogen bond
16
Q16. In 1898, whose theory propounded that the ionsroups bonded to the metal by secondary bonding have spatial arrangements corresponding to different characteristics coordination number?
  • Alfred Werner.
  • Henry Taube
  • Erich Huckel
  • Emil Fischer
17
Q17. What is the atomicity of Phosphorus?
  • Tetra-atomic.
  • Poly-atomic
  • Monoatomic
  • Diatomic
18
Q18. Which formula is used to represent the three-dimensional structures of molecules using a two-dimensional surface like a sheet of paper or a computer screen?
  • Dash-wedge formula.
  • Bond-line formula
  • Lewis structure formula
  • Condensed structural formula
19
Q19. In the electronic configuration of an atom, what does ‘n’ signify in the formula 2n²?
  • The number of the given shell from the nucleus.
  • The number of electrons
  • The number of protons
  • The number of valence electrons
    present
20
Q20. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form ______.
  • Compounds.
  • neutrons
  • protons
  • molecules
21
Q21. If the size of the nucleus of an atom is compared with a cricket ball, then the radius of the atom is approximately equal to how many kilometers?
  • 5 km
  • 0.5 km
  • 0.05 km
  • 0.005 km
22
Q22. The first electron shell which is the nearest to the nucleus never holds more than 'n' electrons, where 'n' is equal to:
  • 2
  • 8
  • 4
  • 6
23
Q23. Which of the following is NOT an alkaline earth metal?
  • Na
  • Mg
  • Ca
  • Be
24
Q24. What is the name of the seventh most abundant metal in the earth's crust, which is derived from the medieval Latin word 'Kalium'?
  • Potassium
  • Aluminium
  • Magnesium
  • Calcium
25
Q.25. Which chemical element with atomic number 35 has a dark reddish-brown liquid with a burning pungent odour?
  • Bromine
  • Chlorine
  • Tennessine
  • Astatine
26
Q.26. An image of which of the following elements is shown by the map of Cyprus from which the element got its name?
  • Copper
  • Silver
  • Cobalt
  • Sulphur
27
Q.27. Which radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5770 years, which is commonly used to estimate the age of organic materials such as paper and parchment?
  • ¹⁴C
  • ⁹C
  • ¹²C
  • ¹⁷C
28
Q.28. Which metal ion released from the tannery industry causes acute water pollution?
  • Cr
  • As
  • Mg
  • Zn
29
Q.29. What is the most stable mineral during the process of weathering?
  • Quartz
  • Olivine
  • Pyroxene
  • Amphibole
30
Q.30. From which Latin word is the s-block element calcium derived?
  • Calx
  • Calum
  • Coleus
  • Calcio
31
Q.31. Which element of Group 17 has two isotopes of masses 35 and 37 amu with average abundance of 75.77% and 24.23%, respectively?
  • Chlorine
  • lodine
  • Fluorine
  • Astatine
32
Q.32. Which of the following are metalloids?
  • Boron, silicon, antimony
  • Boron, oxygen, aluminium
  • Boron, mercury, iron
  • Aluminium, mercury, copper
33
Q.33. Which among the following alloys is a combination of gold and silver?
  • Electrum
  • Bronze
  • Constantan
  • Solder
34
Q.34. Which of the following is a non-metal that can exist in different forms?
  • Carbon
  • Mercury
  • Lithium
  • Potassium
35
Q.35. What is the characteristic of isotopes?
  • Same atomic number and different mass number
  • Same neutron and same proton
  • Same atomic number and same mass
    number
  • Same neutron and different proton
36
Q.36. Which of the following metals is always a component in an amalgam?
  • Mercury
  • Strontium
  • Zinc
  • Aluminium
37
Q.37. Oxides of ____ and ______ dissolve in rain water and form acids which are called acid rain.
  • Sulphur, nitrogen
  • phosphorous, sulphur
  • carbon dioxide, methane
  • calcium, magnesium
38
Q.38. Which among the following alloys is made up of copper and zinc?
  • Dutch Metal
  • Monel Metal
  • Magnalium
  • Rolled Gold
39
Q.39. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • Metals react with acids and produce metal salts and hydrogen gas.
  • Non - metals react with oxygen to
    produce non - metallic oxides which
    are basic in nature.
  • On burning, metals react with oxygen
    to produce metal oxides which are
    acidic in nature.
  • Less reactive metals displace more
    reactive metals from their compounds
    in aqueous solutions.
40
Q.40. Which of the following statements
is/are NOT correct ?
I. The property of metals by which they
can be beaten into thin sheets is called
malleability.
II. The property of metal by which it can
being drawn into wires is called ductility.
  • Neither I nor II
  • Both I and II
  • Only I
  • Only II
41
Q.41. Which of the following liquids can dissolve noble metals such as gold and platinum?
  • Aqua regia
  • Formic acid
  • Acetic acid
  • Chloroform
42
Q.42. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the alkali metals?
  • All the alkali metals have two valence electrons.
  • All the alkali metals are silvery white,
    soft and light metals.
  • The ionization enthalpies of the alkali
    metals are considerably low and
    decrease down the group from.
  • Group 1 metals are known as alkali
    metals.
43
Q.43. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
  • Living beings inhale metals during respiration.
  • Metals are used in making cookware.
  • Metals are used in the manufacture
    of automobiles.
  • Metals are used in manufacturing
    jewellery.
44
Q.44. Choose the most reactive metal from the options given below.
  • Sodium
  • Copper
  • Zinc
  • Iron
45
Q.45. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
  • Non-metals are malleable
  • Metals react with oxygen to form
    basic oxides.
  • Non-metals do not produce any sound
  • Metals have low ionisation enthalpy
46
Q.46. Which of the following metals reacts violently with cold water?
  • Potassium
  • Magnesium
  • Aluminium
  • Zinc
47
Q.47. Which of the following metals having atomic number 3 is a soft, silvery metal with very low density that reacts vigorously with water and corrodes quickly in air?
  • Lithium
  • Potassium
  • Sodium
  • Rubidium
48
Q.48. Identify the INCORRECT pair with respect to the substances and their specific heat capacity (Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹) at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.
  • Water – 1200
  • Aluminium – 900.0
  • Carbon – 506.5
  • Tungsten – 134.4
49
Q.49. The particles of which metal on heating to the boiling point of 357°C go from liquid state to gas state?
  • Mercury
  • Copper
  • Bronze
  • Gallium
50
Q.50. The name of which element is derived from an Anglo-Saxon word and its symbol comes from the Latin word ‘Aurum’?
  • Gold
  • Argon
  • Aluminium
  • Silver
51
Q.51. Which metal sulphate, composed of potassium, aluminium, and sulphate ions in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2, plays a role as a flame retardant, a mordant and an astringent?
  • Potash alum
  • Gypsum
  • Epsom salts
  • Celestite
52
Q.52. Ozone is an allotrope of ______.
  • Oxygen
  • carbon dioxide
  • hydrogen
  • nitrogen
53
Q.53. How many protons are there in a lithium nucleus?
  • 3
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
54
Q.54. Which of the following is a low-grade brown coal that is soft with high moisture content?
  • Lignite
  • Bituminous
  • Anthracite
  • Peat
55
Q.55. Which of the following is a property of silicon dioxide?
  • It has a high melting point.
  • It conducts electricity.
  • It is soft.
  • It is soluble in water.
56
Q.56. Which of the following minerals has kieserite as its ore?
  • Magnesium
  • Silver
  • Potassium
  • Iron
57
Q.57. Identify the alloy among the following of which lead is a component.
  • Solder
  • Alnico
  • Nickel
  • Constantan
58
Q.58. Which of the following is one of the metals used in LED semiconductor technology?
  • Gallium
  • Iron
  • Copper
  • Zinc
59
Q.59. Which of the following metals reacts with the moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat?
  • Copper
  • Silver
  • Iron
  • Zinc
60
Q.60. Which one of the following features is NOT shown by metals?
  • Looks dull
  • Can be pounded into shape
  • Can be made into a wire
  • Conducts heat
61
Q.61. What is the Atomic Number of the element Einsteinium?
  • 99
  • 98
  • 101
  • 100
62
Q.62. Which of the following is an example of a pair of Isobars?
  • Calcium and argon
  • Chlorine and oxygen
  • Oxygen and carbon
  • Hydrogen and Helium
63
Q.63. Which is the rarest element?
  • Astatine
  • Radon
  • Uranium
  • Lithium
64
Q.64. Which of the following is used as a substitute for mercury in thermometers?
  • Galinstan
  • Selenium
  • Arsenic
  • Bromine
65
Q.65. Name the only metal that is antibacterial.
  • Copper
  • Sodium
  • Iron
  • Aluminium
66
Q.66. Constantan is an alloy of copper and _____.
  • Nickel
  • aluminium
  • tin
  • iron
67
Q.67. A 100 mL solution having 0.01 moles of NaOH dissolved in it. The pH of the solution is:
  • 13
  • 1
  • 10
  • 2
68
Q.68. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (Acid) List-II (Food Source)
A.Carbonic acid 1.Mustard oil
B.Lauric acid. 2.Butter
C.Butyric acid 3.Soda Water
D.Erucic acid. 4.Coconut milk
  • A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  • A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  • A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
  • A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
69
Q.69. Which potassium salt is a mineral supplement used to treat or prevent low levels of potassium in the blood?
  • Potassium chloride
  • Potassium iodide
  • Potassium citrate
  • Potassium nitrate
70
Q.70. The reaction between an acid and a base is known as_______
  • Neutralisation reaction
  • Condensation reaction
  • Oxidation reaction
  • Sub-alteration reaction
71
Q.71. Which acid destroys the bacteria that enter the stomach?
  • Hydrochloric acid
  • Nitric acid
  • Boric acid
  • Uric acid
72
Q.72. Which acid is predominantly present in tomatoes?
  • Oxalic acid
  • Carbonic acid
  • Acetic acid
  • Tartaric acid
73
Q.73. Which among the following is a covalent compound?
  • Hydrogen chloride
  • Magnesium hydroxide
  • Calcium carbonate
  • Sodium chloride
74
Q.74. Which of the following is used as an antacid to neutralise stomach acidity?
  • Magnesium Hydroxide
  • Iodoform
  • Morphine
  • Chlorine
75
Q.75. When the litmus solution is neither acidic nor basic, its colour is ______.
  • Purple
  • green
  • red
  • blue
76
Q.76. Which of the following acids makes the pH of vinegar acidic?
  • Acetic acid
  • Tartaric acid
  • citric acid
  • Linoleic acid
77
Q.77. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Salts of a strong acid and weak base are acidic with pH value less than 7.
II. When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium oxide.
  • Only I
  • Neither I nor II
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
78
Q.78. Which of the following bases is found in lime water?
  • Calcium hydroxide
  • Potassium hydroxide
  • Magnesium hydroxide
  • Ammonium hydroxide
79
Q.79. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.
  • Living organisms can survive a wide
    range of pH change.
  • When pH of rain water is less than
    8.2, it is called acid rain.
  • Tooth decay starts when the pH of
    the mouth is lower than 1.5.
80
Q.80. Which of the following substances has a pH value of about 14?
  • Sodium hydroxide
  • Blood
  • Milk of magnesia
  • Lemon Juice
81
Q.81. pH of milk of magnesia is_________.
  • 10
  • 12
  • 8
  • 14
82
Q.82. Which of the following is a natural acid-base indicator?
I. Litmus
II. Turmeric
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
  • Only I
  • Neither I nor II
83
Q.83. How does hydrochloric acid help in facilitating the action of pepsin?
  • Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin.
  • Hydrochloric acid helps break down
    pepsin.
  • Hydrochloric acid creates an alkaline
    medium which facilitates the action of
    the enzyme pepsin.
  • Hydrochloric acid creates a basic
    medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin.
84
Q.84. Which of the following is NOT the correct match?
  • The acid present in tomato - Formic acid
  • The acid present in orange - citric
    acid
  • The acid present in grapes - Tartaric
    acid
  • The acid present in rancid butter -
    Butyric acid
85
Q.85. Which of the following acids is found in spinach?
  • Oxalic acid
  • Formic acid
  • Citric acid
  • Lactic acid
86
Q.86. Which of the following bases is found in window cleaner?
  • Ammonium hydroxide
  • Magnesium hydroxide
  • Sodium hydroxide
  • Calcium hydroxide
87
Q.87. Which of the following pairs of ‘Natural source – Acid’ is NOT correctly matched?
  • Tamarind – Oxalic acid
  • Vinegar – Acetic acid
  • Curd – Lactic acid
  • Orange – Citric acid
88
Q.88. Aqua regia is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of ______ by volume.
  • 3 : 1
  • 2 : 1
  • 6 : 1
  • 4 : 1
89
Q.89. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than ______.
  • 5.5
  • 7.5
  • 9.5
  • 10.5
90
Q.90. Muriatic acid is another name of which compound used in the production of chlorides, fertilizers, and dyes, in electroplating, and in the photographic, textile and rubber industries.
  • Hydrochloric acid
  • Perchloric Acid
  • Sulfuric acidulous
  • Nitric acid
91
Q.91. What happens when an acid or a base is mixed with water?
  • Decrease in the concentration of ions (H_3 O^+/OH^–) per unit volume
  • Decrease in the concentration of ions
    (H_2 O^+/OH^–) per unit volume
  • Decrease in the concentration of ions
    (H_3 O^+/OH^–) per litre volume
  • Decrease in the concentration of ions
    (H_3 O^+/OH^–) per unit volume
92
Q.92. What does ‘p’ in pH stand for?
  • Potenz
  • Potential
  • Pleural
  • Potencial
93
Q.93. Identify the acid that helps in digestion.
  • Hydrochloric acid
  • Nitric acid
  • Acetic acid
  • Sulphuric acid
94
Q.94. Who synthesized acetic acid for the first time?
  • Kolbe
  • Berthelot
  • Berzelius
  • F Wohler
95
Q.95. What do you call a base that dissolves in water?
  • Alkali
  • Alkene
  • Aldehyde
  • Alcohol
96
Q.96. The acidic nature of soil is shown by high concentration of ______.
  • Hydrogen
  • phosphorous
  • nitrogen
  • oxygen
97
Q.97. The salinity of ocean waters is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in ______ gm of seawater.
  • 1000
  • 10,000
  • 100
  • 10
98
Q.98. Which of the following is NOT a natural acid-base indicator?
  • Thyme leaves
  • Geranium flowers
  • Red cabbage leaves
  • Petunia flowers
99
Q.99. When an ant bites, it injects acidic liquid (formic acid) into the skin. What among the following should be applied to the skin to neutralise it?
  • Moist baking soda
  • Lime juice
  • Tomato pulp
  • Bleaching powder
100
Q.100. Which of the following is another name for folic acid?
  • Pteroylglutamic acid
  • Lactic acid
  • Ascorbic acid
  • Glycolic acid
101
Q.101. Litmus paper changes to ______ colour when put in soap water.
  • blue
  • red
  • yellow
  • orange
102
Q.102. Which of the following is the most widely used method for refining impure metals?
  • Electrolytic Refining
  • Poling Refining
  • Vapour-Phase Refining
  • Liquidation Refining
103
Q.103. Which is the most common ore of oxidised mercury that occurs in granular crusts or veins associated with volcanic activity and hot springs?
  • Cinnabar
  • Diaspore
  • Siderite
  • Corundum
104
Q.104. The process in which metals are extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point is called________.
  • Smelting
  • Spinning
  • Heaving
  • Extracting
105
Q.105. Which of the following is the highest quality coal?
  • Anthracite
  • Lignite
  • Peat
  • Bituminous
106
Q.106. Which of the following is a tough, porous and black substance, and almost a pure form of carbon?
  • Coke
  • Bitumen
  • Coal tar
  • Coal gas
107
Q.107. Dolomite is an ore of:
  • magnesium
  • aluminium
  • potassium
  • sodium
108
Q.108. ______ is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of aluminium.
  • Anodising
  • Galvanisation
  • Ductility
  • Corrosion
109
Q.109. Which of the following fibres is used to make rayon cloth?
  • Cellulose
  • Gum
  • Pectin
  • Mucilage
110
Q.110. According to a law postulated by ______, the amounts of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity passing through the electrolytic solution are proportional to their chemical equivalent weights.
  • Michael Faraday
  • Joseph Fourier
  • John Dalton
  • Alfred Nobel
111
Q.111. With reference to metals and their ores, which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?
  • Mercury (Hg) – Greenockite
  • Gold (Au) – Calaverite
  • Aluminium (Al) – Cryolite
  • Cobalt (Co) – Smelite
112
Q.112. Which unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbon composed of 20 carbon atoms is used to make candles and paraffin wax with solar energy storage capacity?
  • Eicosane
  • Octane
  • Nonane
  • Triacontane
113
Q.113. Which synthetic aromatic organic compound inhibits the chemical breakdown of food that occurs in the presence of oxygen, commonly used in foods such as crackers, microwave popcorn, butter and chicken nuggets?
  • Tertiary butyl hydroquinone
  • Diethyltoluamide
  • Sodium hypochlorite
  • 1,4-dichlorobenzene
114
Q.114. Tribromomethane is a synonym for which brominated organic solvent?
  • Bromoform
  • Diborane
  • Borazine
  • Bromosuccinimide
115
Q.115. Methyl ethyl ketone is also known as:
  • 2-butanone
  • methyl pentanone
  • 2-butanol
  • propanone
116
Q.116. Which of the following does NOT belong to the family of organic compounds?
  • Ammonia
  • Furan
  • Decane
  • Nonane
117
Q.117. Which compound structure includes a saturated short-chain fatty acid with 4-carbon molecules, commonly found in esterified form in animal fats and plant oils?
  • Butyric acid
  • Propionic acid
  • Succinic acid
  • Lactic acid
118
Q.118. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound depicted in the figure?
  • 1-Methyl-3-Propylcyclohexane
  • 1-Methyl-2-Propylcyclohexane
  • 1-Methyl-1-Propylcyclohexane
  • 1-Methyl-4-Propylcyclohexane
119
Q.119. What is the chemical formula for the aldehyde group?
  • –CHO
  • –CH2O
  • –COOH
  • –OH
120
Q.120. Which of the following is a primary arylamine in which an amino functional group is substituted for one of the benzene hydrogens?
  • Aniline
  • Pyridine
  • Toluidine
  • Quinoline
121
Q.121. Which of the following is a white to yellowish solid with a weak aromatic odour purified by the process of sublimation?
  • Anthracene
  • Titanyl
  • Orthovanadate
  • Dysprosium
122
Q.122. What is the systematic name of a colourless gas with a faint, ethereal odour called acetylene, widely used for welding?
  • Ethyne
  • Ethanoic anhydride
  • Azoethane
  • Ethyl acetate
123
Q.123. Chaoite, Buckminsterfullerene and Graphene are related to which element?
  • Carbon
  • Arsenic
  • Sulphur
  • Bromine
124
Q.124. Which potassium acid salt is obtained as a by-product of alcohol manufacture during the fermentation process?
  • Potassium bitartrate
  • Potassium citrate
  • Potassium nitrate
  • Potassium hydrogen adipate
125
Q.125. Lactitol is derived through the hydrogenation of:
  • lactose
  • maltose
  • lactic acid
  • glucose
126
Q.126. Which of the following is a straight-chain alkane containing 12 carbon atoms that are used as a major component in kerosene and some jet fuel research and also in the rubber and paper processing industry?
  • Dodecane
  • Eicosane
  • Undecane
  • Heptadecane
127
Q.127. Which organic chemical compound is reacted with nitrous acid at 273-278K to prepare benzenediazonium chloride?
  • Aniline
  • Hydrazine
  • Toluene
  • Pyridine
128
Q.128. In which dialdehyde are two formyl groups attached to adjacent carbon centres on a benzene ring and form fluorescent conjugation products with primary amines?
  • Phthalaldehyde
  • Acetaldehyde
  • Valeraldehyde
  • Isobutyraldehyde
129
Q.129. Heating ethanol with excess concentrated sulphuric acid produces:
  • ethene
  • ethyne
  • ethane
  • butane
130
Q.130. Which of the following is a valid bond in alkenes that connects carbon atoms?
  • Double bond
  • Single bond
  • Triple bond
  • Not connected
131
Q.131. Which of the following compounds having the molecular formula C2H is derived from the hydride of acetylene?
  • Ethynyl
  • Propargyl
  • Vinyl
  • Allyl
132
Q.132. Trichloromethane is better known as:
  • lhloroform
  • butanes
  • LPG
  • laughing
133
Q.133. What is the product formed when CH3CH2OH reacts with O2?
  • CO2 + H2O + heat and light
  • H2O + heat
  • CO2 + H2O + light
  • CO₂ + heat and light
134
Q.134. _____ is a naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO.
  • Benzophenone
  • Methcathinone
  • Propiophenone
  • Acetophenone
135
Q.135. Which element was arbitrarily assigned a value of 4.0 in the ‘Halogens’ section in 1922 by Linus Pauling, an American scientist?
  • Fluorine
  • Iodine
  • Astatine
  • Bromine
136
Q.136. 1,3-Dimethylbenzene is also known as:
  • m-Xylene
  • BHC
  • terelene
  • toluene
137
Q.137. A class of organic compounds that contain an oxygen between two alkyl groups is called:
  • ether
  • alcohol
  • ketone
  • aldehyde
138
Q.138. Which of the following organic compounds is synonymous with olefiant gas which is used to make anaesthetics, refrigerants, and other chemicals?
  • Ethylene
  • 1-Pentene
  • Methane
  • Butane
139
Q.139. Dry ice, ammonium chloride, naphthalene balls, and camphor, all these compounds are an example of:
  • Sublimable substances
  • Cooling agents
  • Inflammable substances
  • Solidifying agents
140
Q.140. Pectin, which is responsible for the firmness and softness of fruits, is mainly composed of which acid unit?
  • Galacturonic acid
  • Aspartic acid
  • Lactic acid
  • Glutamic acid
141
Q.141. What is the colour of the flame when unsaturated hydrocarbons burn?
  • Yellow
  • Blue
  • Red
  • Green
142
Q.142. Butan-2-ol is a:
  • secondary alcohol
  • primary alcohol
  • tertiary alcohol
  • ketone
143
Q.143. Choose the correct set of the names for the organic compounds in the given figure.
  • Furan, Pyridine, Thiophene
144
Q.144. What is the strength of a hydrogen bond determined by?
  • Interaction between the lone-pair electrons of the electronegative atom of one molecule and the hydrogen atom of another molecule
  • Interaction between the lone-pair
    electrons of the electropositive atom
    of one molecule and the hydrogen
    atom of another molecule
  • Interaction between the lone-pair
    electrons of the electronegative atom
    of one molecule and the oxygen atom
    of another molecule
  • Interaction between the lone-pair
    electrons of the polar molecule and
    the hydrogen atom of another
    molecule
145
Q.145. Which among the following elements is used in moisturising creams and soaps because of its hygroscopic properties?
  • Glycerol
  • Freon
  • Galena
  • Ethanol
146
Q.146. Identify a class of compounds that has a functional group -OH.
  • Alcohol
  • Ethane
  • Ketone
  • Aldehyde
147
Q.147. In organic chemistry, which of the following is an empirical rule used to predict the regioselectivity of electrophilic addition reactions of alkanes and alkynes?
  • Markovnikov's rule
  • Cornforth's rules
  • Bredt's rule
  • Baldwin's rules
148
Q.148. What is the suffix for –OH group according to IUPAC?
  • -ols
  • -ene
  • -one
  • -anes
149
Q.149. Name an alkylbenzene widely used as a chemical intermediate in the production of phenol.
  • Cumene
  • Furan
  • Styrene
  • Toluene
150
Q.150. Which of the following is a strong reducing agent used to reduce aldehydes, ketones, esters, carboxylic acid chlorides, carboxylic acids and even carboxylate salts to alcohols?
  • Lithium aluminium hydride
  • Titanium hydride
  • Calcium hydride
  • Bismuth hydride
151
Q.151. Which organic compound has the structure R−COOH, with R referring to the alkyl, alkenyl, aryl, or other group?
  • Carboxylic acid
  • Ester
  • Ketone
  • Aldehydes
152
Q.152. Identify the correct statement with respect to unsaturated hydrocarbons.
  • Compounds of carbon having double bonds or triple bonds between their carbon atoms are called unsaturated compounds.
  • Compounds of carbon having a single
    bond between their carbon atoms are
    called unsaturated compounds.
  • Compounds of carbon having single
    bonds between their oxygen atoms
    are called unsaturated compounds.
  • Compounds of carbon having double
    or triple bonds between their
    hydrogen atoms are called
    unsaturated compounds.
153
Q.153. Which of the following is NOT an allotrope of carbon?
  • Trisulfur
  • Diamond
  • Lonsdaleite
  • Graphite
154
Q.154. Compounds with exactly two double carbon – carbon bonds are known as ______.
  • Dienes
  • Terpenes
  • Trialkyne
  • Dialkyne
155
Q.155. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding hydrocarbons?
  • Carbon compounds cannot get oxidised on combustion.
  • Saturated hydrocarbons are fairly
    unreactive and are inert in the presence
    of most reagents.
  • Most carbon compounds also release
    a large amount of heat and light on
    burning.
  • Unsaturated hydrocarbons add
    hydrogen in the presence of catalysts
    such as palladium or nickel to give
    saturated hydrocarbons
156
Q.156. Propane and butane are the main components of which of the following gases?
  • LPG
  • LNG
  • LMG
  • CNG
157
Q.157. Isopentane, also called ________, is a branched-chain saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula C5H12.
  • 2-methylbutane
  • dimethylbutane
  • isobutane
  • butadiene
158
Q.158. Find the correct chemical formula of nitromethane.
  • CH3NO2
  • CH3NO
  • CH4NO2
  • CH3NO3
159
Q.159. Identify the structural formula for ethene.
  • H2C = CH2
  • H2C = CH3
  • HC = CH3
  • H3C = CH3
160
Q.160. Identify the method that is NOT used to purify organic compounds.
  • Sedimentation
  • Crystallisation
  • Sublimation
  • Distillation
161
Q.161. Which group was given the name ‘paraffin’ earlier?
  • Alkanes
  • Aldehydes
  • Acids
  • Alcohols
162
Q.162. Which chemical compound, with the chemical formula (CH3CH2Cl), is used as a blowing agent in foamed plastics?
  • Chloroethane
  • 3-Chlorohexane
  • Chloromethane
  • 1-chloropropane
163
Q.163. Which functional group compound is obtained by the reaction of an oxoacid with a hydroxyl compound, such as alcohol or phenol?
  • Esters
  • Carbonyls
  • Amines
  • Carboxylic acids
164
Q.164. Which of the following is an organic compound with the formula C6H4Cl2 that is used as a fumigant insecticide to control cloth moths?
  • Paradichlorobenzene
  • Ethylbenzene
  • Benzoyl chloride
  • Chlorobenzene
165
Q.165. In the format of the IUPAC name of the organic compound, the term ‘Root’ is used to represent:
  • the number of carbon atoms in the parent chain
  • functional groups that may be
    present in the compound
  • the cyclic or acyclic nature of the
    given compound
  • the presence of side chains or
    substituent groups
166
Q.166. What is the name of the compound having the formula CH3CH2OH?
  • Ethanol
  • Acetic Acid
  • Methane
  • Chloroform
167
Q.167. Which of the following is an
example of monosaccharides?
A. Fructose B, Sucrose C, Starch D,
Glucose
  • Both A and D
  • Only B
  • Both B and C
  • Only C
168
Q.168. Which of the following is NOT a property of graphite?
  • It has low melting point.
  • It is a conductor of electricity.
  • It has a lower density than diamond.
  • It is a conductor of heat.
169
Q.169. With symbols having their usual meanings, which one among the following is used as the standard for defining atomic mass unit?
  • C-12
  • H-1
  • N-14
  • O-8
170
Q.170. The three-carbon molecules broken down from six-carbon molecules of glucose during the first step in the process of nutrition in all organisms is called:
  • Pyruvate
  • methane
  • butane
  • ethane
171
Q.171. How many carbon and hydrogen atoms are there in Propane, respectively?
  • 3, 8
  • 2, 4
  • 2, 6
  • 4, 6
172
Q.172. What is the bond angle (in degrees) in the structure of a benzene molecule?
  • 120
  • 150
  • 90
  • 60
173
Q.173. The behaviour of lithium is similar to that of magnesium. This sort of similarity is commonly referred to as:
  • diagonal relationship
  • same Zeff
  • inert pair effect
  • isoelectronic species
174
Q.174. What are the elements in group zero commonly known as?
  • Inert gases
  • Reactive
  • Radioactive
  • Volatile
175
Q.175. What was the symbol Henry Moseley used for denoting atomic number?
  • Z
  • M
  • U
  • A
176
Q.176. Which of the following is the correct sequence of alkaline earth metals, according to atomic number?
  • Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba
  • Be < Mg < Sr < Ca < Ba
  • Ba < Mg < Ca < Sr < Be
  • Mg < Be < Ca < Sr < Ba
177
Q.177. Identify an element that has atomic number 7.
  • Nitrogen
  • Calcium
  • Chlorine
  • Oxygen
178
Q.178. Out of the following metals, choose the odd one out on the basis of their place in the periodic table.
  • Magnesium
  • Lithium
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
179
Q.179. Which of the following options are all transition metals?
  • Cu, Fe, Ni, Ti
  • He, Ne, Ar, Au
  • F, Cl, Br, I
  • Na, Mg, Al, Mn
180
Q.180. Which German chemist was the first to show a graphical representation of the periodicity of an atomic volume plotted against atomic weight?
  • Lothar Meyer
  • William Ramsay
  • John Newlands
  • Glenn T Seaborg
181
Q.181. Identify whether the given
statements about p-block elements are
correct or incorrect.
Statement A: In p-block elements, the
last electron enters the outermost p
orbital.
Statement B: The non-metals and
metalloids exist only in the p-block of the
periodic table.
  • Both Statements A and B are correct
  • Only Statement A is correct
  • Only Statement B is correct
  • Both Statements A and B are
    incorrect
182
Q.182. Which of the following elements is a member of the actinide series?
  • Thorium
  • Lutetium
  • Magnesium
  • Lanthanum
183
Q.183. Which element of the boron family has a high boiling point, making it ideal for recording temperatures that would vaporize a thermometer?
  • Gallium
  • Indium
  • Thallium
  • Aluminium
184
Q.184. Which chemical element of Group 18 of the periodic table is produced by the natural radioactive decay of uranium in soils and rocks?
  • Radon
  • Neon
  • Oganesson
  • Krypton
185
Q.185. Which radioactive element with atomic number 43 in the modern periodic table is unstable, and the half-lives of all its isotopes are relatively short, from 4.2 million years to 5.0 s?
  • Technetium
  • Promethium
  • Nobelium
  • Neptunium
186
Q.186. Which soft metal in group 1 of the periodic table tarnishes within a few seconds of exposure to air?
  • Sodium
  • Barium
  • Strontium
  • Francium
187
Q.187. In which year did John Alexander Newlands propound a new concept of the ‘Law of Octaves' proposing the periodicity of chemical elements arranged in order of atomic weight?
  • 1865
  • 1860
  • 1873
  • 1870
188
Q.188. Which s-block element is a silvery-white metal that is used in an alloy with copper or nickel to make gyroscopes, springs, electrical contacts, spot-welding electrodes, and non-sparking equipment?
  • Beryllium
  • Rubidium
  • Francium
  • Caesium
189
Q.189. Which d-block element in the periodic table is represented by the Greek symbol 'alpha' and the metallic 'rays'?
  • Actinium
  • Lanthanum
  • Rhenium
  • Tungsten
190
Q.190. The number of elements known at the time of Russian chemist Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev was:
  • 63
  • 57
  • 53
  • 67
191
Q.191. Which is the soft, malleable, and silvery-yellow metal with atomic number 59 in the lanthanide series?
  • Praseodymium
  • Neodymium
  • Gadolinium
  • Promethium
192
Q.192. In which group of the Periodic Table will you put the elements with electronic configuration [He]2s²2p⁶?
  • 18
  • 8
  • 6
  • 10
193
Q.193. A diagonal relationship is found between which pair of the following elements?
  • Li and Mg
  • Be and Mg
  • Be and B
  • Na and Mg
194
Q.194. What is the name of the 87th element on the periodic table that has no known biological role because it has a half-life of only 22 minutes?
  • Francium
  • Meitnerium
  • Dubnium
  • Seaborgium
195
Q.195. What is the atomic number of Bohrium, which is named after physicist Niels Bohr, one of the founders of quantum theory?
  • 107
  • 117
  • 113
  • 101
196
Q.196. Which element of group 13 has the atomic number 113 and its electronic configuration is [Rn] 5f¹⁴6d¹⁰7s²7p¹?
  • Nihonium
  • Gallium
  • Indium
  • Thallium
197
Q.197. The law of octaves asserts that every eighth element has comparable properties when grouped in increasing order of their atomic masses and is also known as:
  • Newland’s relation
  • Gravity relation
  • Doppler relation
  • Coulomb's relation
198
Q.198. What will be the atomic number of an element X which is placed in period 2 and group 17?
  • 9
  • 8
  • 7
  • 10
199
Q.199. Identify the element that does NOT belong to Group 1 of the Modern Periodic Table.
  • Hydrogen
  • Sodium
  • Lithium
  • Rubidium
200
Q.200. Identify the last element from the fifth period.
  • Xenon
  • Helium
  • Yttrium
  • Rubidium
201
Q.201. Identify the correct statement about Newlands' law of octaves.
  • He started with the element having the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended at thorium, which was the 56th element.
  • He started with the element having
    the highest atomic mass (hydrogen)
    and ended at thorium which was the
    56th element.
  • He started with the element having
    the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen)
    and ended at sodium.
  • He started with the element having
    the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen)
    and ended at aluminium.
202
Q.202. Which of the following group elements are called chalcogens?
  • Group-16
  • Group-2
  • Group-17
  • Group-18
203
Q.203. What is the name of a metallic radioactive transuranic element with atomic number 101 in the actinide series, discovered in 1955?
  • Mendelevium
  • Seaborgium
  • Nobelium
  • Rutherfordium
204
Q.204. Identify the element that does NOT belong to Period 6 of Modern Periodic Table.
  • Silicon
  • Tungsten
  • Rhenium
  • Platinum
205
Q.205. Lanthanides are often called:
  • rare earth elements
  • alkali metals
  • inert gases
  • d-block elements
206
Q.206. Which year was designated by UNESCO as the International Year of the Periodic Table (IYPT) to mark the 150th anniversary of the Mendeleev Periodic Table?
  • 2019
  • 2018
  • 2020
  • 2017
207
Q.207. Which element in the modern periodic table has the same number of valence electrons as that of caesium?
  • Potassium
  • Aluminium
  • Barium
  • Calcium
208
Q.208. _________ is the heaviest naturally occurring element of the Periodic Table with an atomic weight of 238.
  • Uranium
  • Xenon
  • Helium
  • Mercury
209
Q.209. Which among the following is a noble chemical element of science periodic table?
  • Helium
  • Nitrogen
  • Scandium
  • Cobalt
210
Q.210. Which artificial element has been provisionally named seaborgium by American researchers in honour of Nobel Laureate Glenn T Seaborg?
  • Element 106
  • Element 97
  • Element 90
  • Element 103
211
Q.211. Hydrogen resembles the properties of which two groups of the periodic table?
  • Group 1 and group 17
  • Group 2 and group 17
  • Group 1 and group 3
  • Group 2 and group 4
212
Q.212. Which element of group 13 is a soft metal with a low melting point (303K) and is widely used in doping semiconductors and producing solid-state devices such as transistors?
  • Gallium
  • Aluminium
  • Thallium
  • Boron
213
Q.213. Which law was based on notes of the music?
  • Law of octaves
  • Newton law
  • Mendeleev law
  • Modern periodic law
214
Q.214. In which group are the non-metal elements placed in a vertical column on the right side of the periodic table?
  • Group 17
  • Group 1
  • Group 2
  • Group 3
215
Q.215. Who conducted X-ray spectroscopic study of a large number of elements and showed that the frequency of X-rays emitted by an element is related to the atomic number, Z, rather than the atomic mass?
  • Henry Moseley
  • Lothar Meyer
  • Dmitri Mendeleev
  • Johann Dobereiner
216
Q.216. In 1955, which synthetic element is provisionally named Mendelevium in honour of Dmitri Mendeleev, who created one of the first periodic tables?
  • Element 101
  • Element 90
  • Element 106
  • Element 103
217
Q.217. According to Mendeleev's periodic table, what was the atomic mass of Eka-aluminium which was later replaced by Gallium?
  • 68
  • 95
  • 83
  • 50
218
Q.218. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • Atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group in the periodic table.
  • Atomic radius increases across a
    period and decreases down a group
    in the periodic table.
  • Atomic radius decreases across a
    period and down a group in the
    periodic table.
  • Atomic radius increases across a
    period and increases down a group in
    the periodic table.
219
Q.219. Which of the following types of elements is included in the leftmost group of the periodic table?
  • Alkali metals
  • Noble gases
  • Non-metal
  • Halogen
220
Q.220. Which atomic number element of the periodic table is named after Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite and the founder of the Nobel Prize?
  • 102
  • 100
  • 105
  • 108
221
Q.221. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radii?
  • Lithium
  • Beryllium
  • Nitrogen
  • Carbon
222
Q.222. What is the total number of periods and groups in the Modern Periodic Table?
  • Period: 7 Group: 18
  • Period: 9 Group: 7
  • Period: 7 Group: 9
  • Period: 18 Group: 7
223
Q.223. Identify the group of the periodic table to which cobalt belongs.
  • Group 9
  • Group 5
  • Group 6
  • Group 7
224
Q.224. Who arranged the elements with chemically similar properties, such as lithium, sodium, and potassium, and showed that the properties of the middle element could be predicted from the properties of the other two?
  • Johann Dobereiner
  • Lothar Meyer
  • John Newlands
  • Dmitri Mendeleev
225
Q.225. Why are the outermost electrons lost easily down the group?
  • The outermost electrons are farther away from the nucleus
  • The elements are inert
  • The innermost electrons are farther
    away from the nucleus
  • The outermost electrons are closest
    to the nucleus
226
Q.226. Which element’s symbol is derived from the Greek name hydrargyrum, meaning ‘liquid silver’ – indicating its shiny surface?
  • Mercury
  • Antimony
  • Zirconium
  • Silver
227
Q.227. Which element of Group 13 of the periodic table liquefies just above room temperature?
  • Gallium
  • Indium
  • Thallium
  • Aluminium
228
Q.228. Identify the group of the periodic table to which iron belongs.
  • Group 8
  • Group 5
  • Group 6
  • Group 7
229
Q.229. Why does the effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons decrease down the group?
  • The outermost electrons are farther away from the nucleus
  • The elements are inert
  • The outermost electrons are closest
    to the nucleus
  • The innermost electrons are farther
    away from the nucleus
230
Q.230. How many electrons are there in the outermost shell of a group 16 element?
  • 6
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
231
Q.231. What is the atomic mass of oxygen (expressed in ‘u’)?
  • 16
  • 24
  • 32
  • 8
232
Q.232. As per Newlands’ Octaves, which of the following has the same properties as sodium?
  • Lithium
  • Beryllium
  • Potassium
  • Magnesium
233
Q.233. Of the known elements in the periodic table, only ______ are gases under normal atmospheric conditions.
  • 11
  • 10
  • 13
  • 12
234
Q.234. The elements of the groups 3 to 12 are called ______ elements or transition elements.
  • d-block
  • c-block
  • a-block
  • p-block
235
Q.235. In the periodic table, the highly electronegative halogens and the highly electropositive alkali metals are separated by:
  • Noble gases
  • Rare earth elements
  • Alkaline earth metals
  • Noble gases
236
Q.236. Who, in the 1860s, undertook a thorough investigation of the gas laws expressing the relationships of pressure, temperature, and volume in carbon dioxide?
  • Thomas Andrews
  • Giulio Natta
  • John Dalton
  • Marguerite Perey
237
Q.237. Who described in 1662 that when a gas was pumped into an enclosed space, it would shrink to fit in that space, but the pressure exerted by the gas on the container would increase?
  • Robert Boyle
  • Jacques Charles
  • Joseph Gay Lussac
  • Amedeo Avogadro
238
Q.238. Which of the following is used as a cooling medium for the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) and the superconducting magnets in MRI scanners and NMR spectrometers?
  • Helium
  • Neon
  • Argon
  • Chlorine
239
Q.239. The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its _______.
  • Ignition temperature
  • melting point
  • explosion point
  • combustion temperature
240
Q.240. According to which of the following laws, the pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the component gases?
  • Dalton's Law
  • Charles' Law
  • Boyle's Law
  • Graham's Law
241
Q.241. In 1662, who described the equation P1V1 = P2V2, where P1 and V1 are the initial pressure and volume values, and P2 and V2 are the pressure and volume values of the gas after the transformation?
  • Robert Boyle
  • Amedeo Avogadro
  • Joseph Gay Lussac
  • John Dalton
242
Q.242. One mole of an ideal gas occupies a volume of ______ litre at 273 K and 1 atm pressure.
  • 22.4
  • 21.2
  • 25.1
  • 20.3
243
Q.243. Which process of phase transition is the reverse of deposition?
  • Sublimation
  • Fusion
  • Solidification
  • Vaporisation
244
Q.244. Identify the odd term with respect to allotropes of carbon.
  • Tungsten
  • Buckminsterfullerene
  • Graphite
  • Diamond
245
Q.245. Potato chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen primarily to:
  • prevent the chips from getting oxidised
  • make the packets look bigger for
    commercial advantages
  • prevent the chips from getting broken
    during transport
  • prevent decomposition of the chips
    by bacteria action
246
Q.246. The major component of granite is:
  • SiO2 and Al2O3
  • MnO2 and PbSO4
  • TiO2 and ZnSO4
  • ZnSO4 and Al2O3
247
Q.247. At normal temperature and atmospheric pressure, ______ has a density of 1.87 kg/m3, which is 1.5 times heavier than air and exists as a liquid below the critical temperature of 31°C.
  • Carbon dioxide
  • nitrogen
  • lithium
  • hydrogen
248
Q.248. In July 2018, an experiment aboard the International Space Station cooled a cloud of atoms of which chemical element to one ten-millionth of one Kelvin above absolute zero, forming a Bose-Einstein Condensate in space?
  • Rubidium
  • Radium
  • Plutonium
  • Thorium
249
Q.249. Which odourless, colourless, tasteless and chemically unreactive gas was invented by Daniel Rutherford in 1772 and was independently isolated at the same time by CW Scheele and H Cavendish?
  • Nitrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Argon
  • Fluorine
250
Q.250. From the given options, choose the one which is NOT a product of the decomposition reaction of Lead nitrate.
  • Nitrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Nitrogen dioxide
  • Lead oxide
251
Q.251. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • Chemically rust is hydrated ferric oxide
  • Zinc oxide is a form of rust
  • Chemically rust is non-hydrated ferric oxide
  • Copper can also turn into rust upon
    hydration
252
Q.252. The correct order of electron affinity of halogens is:
  • I<Br<F<CI
  • F<l<Br<Cl
  • I<Br<Cl<F
  • I>Br>F<CI
253
Q.253. What is the popular name for mercury(I) chloride which is used as a laboratory reagent and as a depolarizer in dry batteries?
  • Calomel
  • Galena
  • Phosgene
  • Saltpetre
254
Q.254. Which of the following is a highly electropositive element that readily gives up an electron in order to obtain a stable electronic configuration?
  • Na
  • CI
  • O
  • N
255
Which of the following pairs of
compounds - boiling point is correct?
I. Chloroform - 334K
II. Methane - 111K
  • Both I and II
  • Only I
  • Only II
  • Neither I nor II
256
Q.256. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
  • Alkynes
  • Alkenes
  • Free carbon dioxide
  • Alkanes
257
Q.257. The valency of argentic is:
  • + 2
  • + 3
  • - 1
  • - 2
258
Q.258. Which of the following acids makes up 55-80% of olive oil, making it a good choice for most cooking methods?
  • Oleic acid
  • Lauric acid
  • Arachidic acid
  • Stearic acid
259
Q.259. What is the atomicity of Chlorine?
  • Diatomic
  • Tetra-atomic
  • Poly-atomic
  • Monoatomic
260
Q.260. Which of the following elements has variable valency?
  • Iron
  • Sodium
  • Sulphur
  • Magnesium
261
Q.261. Which of the following pairs of compounds - melting point is correct?

I. Acetic acid - 290K
II. Ethanol - 156K
  • Both I and II
  • Only I
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only II
262
Q.262. Which of the following is the correct descending order of nitrate ion (NO3–), chloride ion (Cl–), bromide ion (Br–) and iodide ion (I–) as per their basic strength?
  • NO3– > Cl– > Br– > I–
  • CI– > Br– > I– > NO3 -
  • I– > NO3– > Cl¯ > Br–
  • Br– > I– > NO3¯ > CI¯
263
Q.263. Which among the following has the highest boiling point?
  • CaO
  • NaCl
  • CaCl2
  • LiCI
264
Q.264. When an iron nail is dipped into a _________ coloured copper sulphate solution, its colour changes to __________.
  • blue, green
  • green, blue
  • blue, yellow
  • yellow, blue
265
Q.265. What is the product of a reaction of calcium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide?
  • Calcium hydrogen carbonate
  • Calcium oxide
  • Calcium hydroxide
  • Hydrochloric acid
266
Q.266. Which gas is used by chemical leaveners, such as baking powder and baking soda, to lighten and aerate baked goods?
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Nitrogen
  • Helium
  • Hydrogen
267
Q.267. Which of the following is NOT a neutral oxide?
  • Na2O
  • N2O
  • NO
  • CO
268
Q.268. Which of the following is a soft metal that ignites in air and reacts violently with water and has atomic number 37 in the periodic table?
  • Rubidium
  • Caesium
  • Francium
  • Gallium
269
Q.269. Which of the following is correctly paired?
  • Cyanide ion - CN–
  • Ammonia - OH–
  • Bromide ion - F–
  • Fluoride ion - Cl–
270
Q.270. Which of the following is a property of Beryllium?
  • Forms covalent compounds
  • Forms ionic compounds
  • Has a low melting and boiling point
  • Reacts with water
271
Q.271. The mineral Carnotite is an important source of:
  • Uranium
  • copper
  • zinc
  • iron
272
Q.272. What is the boiling point of water at sea level?
  • 100°C
  • 250°C
  • 50°C
  • 150°C
273
Q.273. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
  • Water
  • Carbon tetrachloride
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Benzene
274
Q.274. Which of the following statements is NOT true about compounds?
  • Compounds have a variable composition
  • The composition of each new
    substance is always fixed.
  • The constituents can be separated
    only by chemical or electrochemical
    reactions.
  • Elements react to form new
    compounds.
275
Q.275. Which of the following options are homogeneous mixtures?
  • Solution, salt water, brass
  • Solution, colloid, milk, toothpaste, salt
    water, brass
  • Colloid, suspension, milk, toothpaste
  • Solution, colloid, suspension, milk,
    toothpaste, salt water, brass
276
Q.276. What is the percentage composition of the element of H2SO3?
  • 2.5% H, 39% S, 58.5% O
  • 2.5% H, 58.5% S, 39% O
  • 33% H, 16% S, 51% O
  • 58.5% H, 39% S, 2.5% O
277
Q.277. Whose research was fundamental in establishing the modern discipline known as surface tension, which describes the properties of liquid and solid surfaces and interfaces?
  • Agnes Pockels
  • Gerty Cori
  • Nettie Stevens
  • Lise Meitner
278
Q.278. What is the ratio by mass of hydrogen and oxygen in water?
  • 1 : 8
  • 1 : 4
  • 2 : 5
  • 2 : 3
279
Q.279. What is the ratio by mass of carbon and oxygen in carbon dioxide?
  • 3 : 8
  • 3 : 13
  • 3 : 1
  • 3 : 2
280
Q.280. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding mixtures?
  • Colloids are heterogeneous mixtures in which the particle size is large.
  • The major component of a solution is
    called the solvent.
  • The minor component of a solution is
    called the solute.
  • A solution is a homogeneous mixture
    of two or more substances.
281
Q.281. Which of the following colloid is an example of foam?
  • Sponge
  • Butter
  • Cheese
  • Mist
282
Q.282. Which of the following substances is insoluble in water?
  • Chalk powder
  • Salt
  • Sugar
  • Milk
283
Q.283. Which of the given statements is
correct regarding properties of
suspension?
I. Suspension is a heterogeneous
mixture.
II. The particles of a suspension can be
seen by the naked eye.
  • Both I and II
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
  • Only II
284
Q.284. Which of the following is an example of emulsion?
  • Milk
  • Mist
  • Gemstone
  • Clouds
285
Q.285. Which of the following techniques can be used to separate the impurities in Milk?
  • Column chromatography
  • Microscopy
  • Microtomy
  • Autoclave
286
Q.286. What kind of substances are separated using the technique of steam distillation?
  • Substances that are steam volatile
  • Coloured substances
  • Substances with many electrons
  • Coarse substances
287
Q.287. Which of the following techniques
can be used for reducing the total
dissolved solids (TDS) in water?
(1) Ion Exchange
(2) Distillation
(3) Carding
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Only 3
  • Both 2 and 3
  • Only 1
288
Q.288. Which among the following is NOT true about a solution and the solute concerned?
  • The particles of the solute settle down at the bottom when the solution is kept undisturbed.
  • The particles of the solute do not
    scatter a beam of light
  • The particles of the solute cannot be
    seen with unaided eyes.
  • A solution is a homogeneous mixture
289
Q.289. Solubility of gases in liquids _____ with decrease in temperature.
  • Increases
  • Remains constant
  • First decreases and then increases
  • decreases
290
Q.290. ____ Law of independent migration of ions states that limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the sum of the individual contributions of the anion and cation of the electrolyte.
  • Kohlrausch
  • Dirac
  • Feynman
  • Schrodinger
291
Q.291. Match List-I with List-II.
(Chemical compound) (Spices)

A. Curcuminoids. 1. Cardamom
B. 1, 8-cineole. 2. Black pepper
C. Eugenol. 3. Turmeric
D. Piperine. 4. Cloves
  • A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
  • A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
  • A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4
  • A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2
292
Q.292. Out of the following, identify the process that does NOT involve a chemical reaction.
  • Cooling effect of nail polish remover
  • Cloth cleaning using detergent
  • Ripening of mango
  • Change of colour of turmeric due to
    soap
293
Q.293. Which chemical compound is present in hard plastic such as drinking water bottles and many household items?
  • Bisphenol A
  • Trifluralin
  • Chrome alum
  • Heptachlor
294
Q.294. Which of the following is considered a chemical hazard in food?
  • Pesticides residues
  • Stones
  • sand
  • Jewellery
295
Q.295. Which of the following is NOT a food preservative?
  • Aqua regia
  • Vinegar
  • Sodium nitrite
  • Sodium chloride
296
Q.296. Which gas is the major component of biogas?
  • Methane
  • CNG
  • Hydrogen
  • LPG
297
Q.297. Hardness of water is expressed in terms of:
  • ppm
  • mole
  • molarity
  • normality
298
Q.298. What kind of smell do Esters have?
  • Sweet smell like fruits
  • Rotten egg smell
  • Floral smell
  • Pungent smell
299
Q.299. When milk is converted into curd, which type of change is it?
  • Chemical change
  • Reversible change
  • Physical change
  • Isothermal change
300
Q.300. Which of the following is the product as a result of the process of hydrolysis of orthoclase?
  • Kaolinite
  • Limonite
  • Gypsum
  • Magnesite

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