Pharm test

within 3 hours of traumatic injury to stop internal bleeding in the torso area.
Anticoagulant Mechanism of action:

vasoconstriction
Stimulation of Beta 1 Adrenergic Receptors would cause

Used to terminate seizures, have anxiolytic, and sedative properties.
motor endplate

used to help symtomatic bradycardia caused by stimulating vagus nerve during intubation

undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort
Scheduele 4 drugs:

Time of symtom onset
A malnourished patient with history of long term alcohol abuse would recieve:

throughout stages 0,1,2 and the middle of 3, no additional depolarization may occur to limit max HR, and ensure a certain amount of time during contractions
Cardiac Cell Cycle Phase 3

This happens when a cell shrinks and shrivels; can result in cell death if severe.
What medication is used to decrease gastric acid secretions?

Thiamine
Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

Theophyline
What class of drugs uses metabolites of caffiene and theobromine to create bronchodialatory and stimulant effects?

The region on a muscle cell where acetylcholine binds with receptors.
Magnesium Sulfate Mechanism of Action

the airway diameter to dilate.
The best choice for management of a CHF patient suffering from bronchospasm is

Terbutaline
What is an influencing factor regaurding the administration of a fibrinolytic drug on a patient experiencing an MI

strengthens the contraction of the heart muscle, slows the heart rate, and helps eliminate fluid from body tissues
Digitalis toxicity

Sodium creates a spike in electricity (Phase 0) and the amount of time it takes to peak
Potassium Channel blockers, Class 3

Sodium channels close, while potassium exits the Cell
Cardiac Cell cycle Phase 2

Sodium bicarb
DUMBELS

sodium and calcium slowly enter the cell while potassium continues to leave. Repolarization occurs
absolute (effective) refractory period

Romazicon
Romazicon (flumazenil)

Rocuronium, Vecuronium
Provide muscle relaxation by binding with nicotinic receptors and antagonizing aCH release
Depolarizing paralytics

Repolarization completes
Relative Refractory Period

Renal Failure
0.2 mg equals:

produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects
The Mark 1 Auto injector contains:

primarily stimulates alpha receptors.
Stimulation of alpha 1 receptors results in:

prevent new clot formation, and the growth of existing clots
Oxytocic

Prevacid
Prevacid (lansoprazole)

post AMI or stroke patients to dissolve clots
TXA needs to be given:

Neurotransmitter that helps to activate and inhibit skeletal muscles; regulates the parasympathetic nervous system
Massive doses of atropine may be required when:

nausea and vomiting, yellow-green vision, extrasystole, AV conduction block
related to coadministration with chlorothiazide
A patient has fractured his femur, and you are treating him with benzodiazepines for muscle spasms. After your last admin of versed, he went unconcious and stopped breathing. What medication should you treat with Now?

multiple 2.5 by 1,000 to get 2500 ml
Metric unit weights from largest to smallest

Mnemonic for the signs and symptoms of cholinergic agent poisoning.

Defecation
Urination
Muscle Twitching and Miosis
Bronchorrhea
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
Pralidoxime Chloride

Methylxanthines
What class of drugs will dry of bronchorhea and cause bronchodilation, but may also thicken secretions making them harder to suction?

medications that cause neuromuscular blockade by binding and briefly activating receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction, preventing further activation of these sites and causing chemical paralysis. Cause muscle fasciculations
Anxiolytics

may treat acetametaphin OD
What medication is a proton pump inhibitor?

magnesium sulfate toxicity
Acytylcholinesterase

Locarted in the lungs, when stimulated they cause bronchodilation
Beta Blockers

known hyperkalemia
The primary physiologic effect of dobutamine is:

kg, g, mg, mcg.
For patients with cardiovascular diseases, the danger of taking over the counter antihistamines are:

it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine
Hyperkalemia

is used for a purpose not yet approved by the FDA, at doses different than recomended, or by a route not yet FDA approved
Adverse Effect

Insulin
Calcium Chloride or Calcium Gluconate may mitigate hypotension or bradycardia following OD of

induces vomiting by irritating gastric mucosa, ansd stimulates vomit centers of the brain
Mucolytics

induces profound sedation following a single dose.
Fentanyl is the prefered opiod for patients in critical or unstable condition because:

increased inotropy (BP)
Non-depolarizing Paralytic

Increased cardiac electrical conduction, increased renin secretion, and increased HR.
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

In the middle of stage 3, going back to stage 4, there is a window for an unusually powerful stimulus to reinitiate depolarization for next cycle.
sodium-potassium pump

hypertension
In order to relieve bronchospasms from an asthma attack, the paramedic would give

Histamine 2 (H2) receptor antagonists
What medication is most likely to be used for motion sickness?

have a lower abuse potential than scheduele 3, and include medications such as diazepam and ativan
What condition makes a patient most suseptible to an adverse effect from a medication

has a rapid onset of action, a longer (up to 60 minutes) duration of action, and fewer adverse effects.
Etomidate is a medication that:

has a higher affinity for the receptor sites than the chemical mediator.
A medication used off label means it is

GERD proton pump inhibitor
Atropin in peds

Flumazenil
Syrup of Ipecac

excessive potassium in the blood
Succinylcholine should not be used in patients with:

Elongate phase 3 of cardiac cell cycle, to increase ERP. Creates more time between Heartbeats. Good for treating SVT, and V-Tach. Can cause Torsades and cause V-Fib.
A drug is assigned pregnancy catagory A, if

drugs that interrupt or reduce the function of the parasympathetic system
A medication that posesses a negative chronotropic effect will:

Drugs that alleviate the symptoms of anxiety.
Benzodiazepines do all of these

DOC for cyanide poisoning
(From the nitrate drug class)
acytlcysteine (mucomyst)

dissolves existing blood clots
Plavix (clopidogrel)

Dimenhydrinate
What area of the brain has receptors for variuous neurotransmitters that may provoke vomiting?

Diltiazem (Cardizem) a calcium channel blocker
IV Calcium is used to treat:

Digibind
Amyl Nitrate

destruction of a blood clot
Fibrinolytic

Cumulative Action
A medication is called an antagonist if it

CTZ (Chemoreceptor trigger zone)
What medication turns glucose into glycogen, decreasing blood glucose levels?

controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, or later trimesters.
A drug that posesses the same desired clinical effect in several smaller doses as it does in larger doses has demonstrated a

CLASS: vitamin
ACTIONS: allows normal breakdown of glucose
INDICATIONS: coma of unknown origin, alcoholism, delirium tremens
CONTRAINDICATIONS: none in the emergency setting
PRECAUTIONS: rare anaphylactic reactions have been reported, should not be used as part of a "coma cocktail"
SIDE EFFECTS: rare, if any
ROUTE: IV, IM
ADULT DOSAGE: 100 mg
PEDIATRIC DOSAGE: rarely indicated
Infiltration of the IV during administration of dextrose will cause

cell crenation from osmosis
Crenation

Causes vigourous vasoconstriction
Compared to succinylcholine, rocuronium:

Cause a decrease in HR
ACE inhibitor Medications lower BP By:

Cardiac Muscle cells recieve an Impulse, sodium ions rapidly enter the cell, while calcium clowly enters. causing a calcium enduced muscle contaction. Depolarization occurs
Cardiac Cell cycle Phase 1

Cardiac Cells are at rest, awiting impulse. Defines Diastole
Cardiac Cell Cycle Phase 0

Can cause hypotension, torsades, metabolic acidosis, torsades. Calcium chloride can be used to treat this
Beta 1 receptors

Calcium Channel Blockers Class 4

Calcium Channel Blockers
Which receptor when stimulated inhibits norepi release?

Blocks aceytylcholine at the motor endplates to stop muscle contractions, and stop seizures.
thrombolysis

blocking the converison of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
A 5-10 mg/kg/min, dopamine

Block sodium channels to prevent excess from entering the cell, and prolong phase 0, and the ERP of cardiac cell cycle. Therefore slowing tachydysarrythmias. Example is lidocaine.
Cardiac cell cycle phase 4

block beta receptors to decrease HR, and decrease conduction through the AV node. Block sympathetic stimulation. Decrease frequency of SA node firing. Treat SVT like A-Fib, A-flutter, V-Tach.
Sodium Channel Blockers

beta 2 receptors can be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasms.
In contrast to epinephrine, norepinephrine:

Atropine and pralidoxime chloride
What medication promotes the crenation of cyanomethemoglobin so thatt it may be excreted in the liver?

Antiplatelete Aggregate
Plavix is indicated for?

anticholinergics
Anticholinergic drugs

antagonizing muscarinic receptors, reduces inflammation
Stimulation of beta 2 receptors will cause

an enzyme that causes rapid hydrolysis of acetylcholine. Its action serves to stop excitation of a nerve after transmission of an impulse.
Acytelcholine (ACh)

Amyl Nitrate
What toxin is associated with depleting hepatic glutathione?

Alpha 2
At 15 mcg/min, dopamine:

agents that inhibit the entry of calcium ions into heart muscle cells, causing a slowing of the heart rate, a lessening of the demand for oxygen and nutrients, and a relaxing of the smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels to cause dilation; used to prevent or treat angina pectoris, some arrhythmias, and hypertension
EX: Cardizem
Calcium Channel Blocker Toxicity

Activation of these increases HR and Contractility, has Inotropic effects. Also increases conduction through AV node to increase HR
Beta 2 receptors

activates beta 1 receptor sites, and increases HR and Cardiac Contractility
Beta Blockers should be used with extreme caution in patients with a reactive airway because:

Act on uterine muscle to cease contractions. Used to stop preterm labor. Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), ritodrine HCl (Yutopar), nifedipine (Procardia), magnesium sulfate
What medication ise used to control postpartum hemhorage?

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) dissolve excess mucous
What medication is used to treat tricyclic antidepressant OD?

Acetylcholinesterase regenerator: very high affinity for phosphorus in organophosphates
Digitalis

acetylcholine increases dramatically due to acetylcholinesterase inhibition.
Prehospital treatment of a patient who OD'd of Aspirin may include:

Acetametaphine
What medication is used to treat symptoms of a digitalis toxicity?

a hormone cascade pathway that helps regulate blood pressure and blood volume
What class of medication usually used to control HR in patients with A-Fib or A-Flutter?

a drug that stimulates uterine contractions
Tocolytics

a carrier protein that uses ATP to actively transport 3 sodium ions out of a cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell. These are then trated for calcium which initiates contraction.
Sodium effect on heart

a beta 2 agonist.
Ipratropium Bromide (Atrovent) causes bronchodilation by

500/60 minutes = 8.3
8.3 X 15 gtts/ml = 125
set drip rate at 125 gtts/min
To convert 2.5 L to ML, you should

200 mcg
1 mg is equal to

20 mg/ml
Medical control orders you to give 500ml of NS over 1 hour to your patient. You have a macrodrip set that allows 15 gtts/ml and an 18g catheter. How many gtts/ml should you set the flow rate?

1,000 mcg
100 Ml is equal to

0.1 L
A prefilled syringe of lidocaine containes 100 mg/5ml of volume. How many mg/ml are present in the syringe?

-Reverses benodiazepines
-can cause seizures if reversal is too rapid
Glucagon is used in the treatment of beta-blocker overdose because it: