1Q: What is the substance responsible for the color in normal yellow urine?
A: Urochrome (normal pigment), as well as urobilin and uroerythrin.
2Q: What could be the cause of dark yellow to amber urine?
A: Concentrated urine due to limited fluid intake, dehydration, strenuous exercise, or excessive conversion of urobilinogen to urobilin.
3Q: What causes urine to appear dark yellow-green?
A: Biliverdin, due to oxidation of bilirubin upon standing or improper storage.
4Q: What substance can cause urine to turn bright yellow?
A: Riboflavin (vitamin B-complex) or multivitamins.
5Q: What medication can cause orange urine?
A: Phenazopyridine (Pyridium), which is a urinary analgesic, Warfarin (Coumadin) an anticoagulant, or rifampin (tuberculosis treatment).
6Q: What is the clinical significance of pink urine?
A: It can be caused by hemoglobin or RBCs from urinary tract bleeding or contamination, or by porphobilinogen in inherited porphyrias.
7Q: Which condition can lead to red-purple urine?
A: Porphyria, due to the oxidation of porphobilinogens to porphyrins.
8Q: What can cause brown urine?
A: Myoglobin due to rhabdomyolysis, or methemoglobin from oxidized hemoglobin.
9Q: What can cause dark brown to black urine?
A: Melanin oxidation or the presence of homogentisic acid, which is associated with alkaptonuria.
10Q: What infection can cause blue or green urine?
A: Pseudomonas infection.
11Q: What condition is associated with red urine caused by hemoglobin?
A: Intravascular hemolysis, where hemoglobin is released into the plasma and then filtered by the kidneys.
12Q: What substance causes pink or red urine in individuals with genetically disposed alkaline urine?
A: Porphobilinogen, associated with inherited porphyrias.
13Q: What drug can cause brown urine and is used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and Giardia?
A: Metronidazole (Flagyl).
14Q: What substance can cause red-purple urine in individuals with inherited metabolic disorders?
A: Porphyrins due to the excessive oxidation of colorless porphobilinogens and porphobilinogen.
15Q: What color is urine with the presence of intact RBCs, and what does it signify?
A: Red, indicating bleeding in the urinary tract.
16Q: What condition is indicated by brown urine due to the presence of myoglobin?
A: Rhabdomyolysis, which causes muscle breakdown and releases myoglobin into the bloodstream.
17Q: What drug can cause dark brown urine and is also an anti-inflammatory?
A: Indomethacin (NSAID).
18Q: What is the cause of black urine upon standing and is associated with a genetic metabolic disorder?
A: Homogentisic acid, indicating alkaptonuria.
19Q: What dye-containing drugs can cause blue or green urine?
A: Methylene blue or other dyes used in medications like TracTabs or Urised.
20Q: What food can cause red urine without indicating a pathological condition?
A: Beets, especially in individuals who have acidic urine.
21Q: What medication, when taken, can cause bright yellow urine and is commonly found in multivitamins?
A: Riboflavin (Vitamin B2).
22Q: What causes orange urine when the pH is acidic?
A: Phenazopyridine (Pyridium), a urinary analgesic.
23Which urine color is not the result of drug metabolites?
A. Red
B. Blue-green
C. Brown
D. Red-purple
D. Red-purple
24The technician pulls a urine specimen out of the refrigerator and notes a pink precipitate. She knows that she has a urine with a(n):
A. Alkaline pH and amorphous urates
B. Alkaline pH and uroerythrin on uric acid crystals
C. Neutral pH and uric acid crystals
D. Acidic pH and amorphous urates
D. Acidic pH and amorphous urates
25Which substance found in urine is considered pathologic?
A. Spermatozoa
B. Yeast
C. Powder
D. Squamous epithelial cells
B. Yeast
26The urine of a patient who had been on a medical fast for the past several weeks may smell:
A. Sweet and fruity
B. Pungent and fetid
C. Ammonia-like
D. Faintly aromatic
A. Sweet and fruity
27Isosthenuria is a term used to describe:
A. A fixed specific gravity of 1.010
B. The balance of ionic and nonionic particles in urine
C. Temperature plateaus in freezing point osmometry
D. A dilute, clear urine
A. A fixed specific gravity of 1.010
28While performing UAs, the technician ran controls and began testing the specimens. He ran out of reagent strips and needed one more to complete the run. He opened a new bottle and:
A. Continued testing on the remaining specimens
B. Ran controls on the new bottle and then continued the run
C. Aborted the run and started all over with the first specimen
D. Checked for discoloration before continuing the run
B. Ran controls on the new bottle and then continued the run
29All of the following are improper uses of the reagent strip, which will produce erroneous results, except:
A. Inadequate removal of excess urine from the strip
B. Blotting the edge of the reagent strip after dipping it in the urine
C. Prolonged dipping of the strip in urine
D. Reading the results after all test pads have reached full development
B. Blotting the edge of the reagent strip after dipping it in the urine
30Whenever the reagent pad shows a negative result for blood and the microscopic examination reveals RBCs, the technician should suspect the presence of:
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Peroxide
C. Hemosiderin
D. Porphyrin
A. Ascorbic acid
31The technician performs a microscopic examination on urine sediment from a 35-year-old female. The findings for this specimen are:
Physical Examination Chemical Examination Microscopic Examination
Color: Amber
Clarity: Slightly hazy
Sp. Gr. 1.025
pH 6.5
Blood: Negative
Protein: Negative
LE: Negative
Nitrite: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Ketones: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Urobilinogen: 1.0 EU
Ascorbic acid: Negative
3-6 WBCs
0-1 Squamous epithelial cells
The best explanation for these results is:
A. The specimen was not well mixed, resulting in a negative LE result.
B. Vaginal contamination of the specimen masked the LE result.
C. An insufficient amount of leukocyte esterase was produced.
D. The specific gravity was too high, causing a false-negative LE result.
C. An insufficient amount of leukocyte esterase was produced.
32 The reagent strip for protein can detect which protein(s)?
A. Myoglobin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Albumin
D. Globulins
E. All of the above
C. Albumin
33Diabetic patients must routinely have their urine checked to monitor their renal status. For this purpose, the technician performs which test?
A. 24-hour urine protein test
B. Reagent strip for protein test
C. Microalbumin reagent strip test
D. Sulfosalicylic acid test for protein
C. Microalbumin reagent strip test
34A fresh brown urine may indicate the presence of:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Bilirubin
C. Myoglobin
D. Melanin
C. Myoglobin
35The microscopy technique that provides more detailed visualization of translucent or low-refractile components and living cells is:
A. Polarizing microscopy
B. Brightfield microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Interference contrast microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
36Cells found in urine sediment that contain highly refractile droplets are:
A. Glitter cells
B. Ghost cells
C. Oval fat bodies
D. Clue cells
C. Oval fat bodies
37In a hypotonic urine, RBCs have what type of appearance?
A. Crenated
B. Ghost cell
C. Acanthocyte
D. Biconcave
B. Ghost cell
38 Healthy individuals may have which of the following in their urine, as a normal finding, after strenuous exercise?
A. WBC and RBC casts
B. Hyaline and finely granular casts
C. RBC and waxy casts
D. Nonpathologic pseudocasts
B. Hyaline and finely granular casts
39Glomerular damage characterized by hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, azotemia, edema, and hypertension is referred to as:
Select one:
a) nephrotic syndrome
b) IgA nephropathy
c) chronic glomerulunephritis
d) acute nephritic syndrome
d) acute nephritic syndrome
40Ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) may result from all of the following conditions except:
Select one:
a) bacterial infection
b) severe burns
c) crush injuries
d) renal glycosuria
d) renal glycosuria
41The laboratory receives a random urine specimen obtained from a 17-year-old female teenager, who needs the UA as part of her sports physical examination. The test results are:
Physical Examination
*Color: Reddish-brown
Clarity: Cloudy
Chemical Examination
Specific Gravity: 1.020
pH: 7.0
*Blood: Moderate
Protein: Negative
LE: Negative
Nitrite: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Ketones: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Urobilinogen: 1.0 EU
Microscopic Examination
2-4 WBCs
*15-20 RBCs
Which of the following explains these results?
Select one:
a) glomerulonephritis
b) urinary tract infection
c) menstrual contamination
d) allergic drug reaction
c) menstrual contamination
42The pathogenesis of which systemic disorder involves deposition of a pathologic proteinaceous substance between cells in numerous tissues and organs?
Select one:
a) diabetes mellitus
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) amyloidosis
d) IgA nephropathy
c) amyloidosis
43The progressive loss of the GFR in chronic renal failure clinically presents when the patient shows which of the following?
Select one:
a) loss of 80% to 85% of normal renal function
b) decreased renal perfusion
c) atherosclerosis of intrarenal arteries
d) increased frequency of UTIs
a) loss of 80% to 85% of normal renal function
44Which of the following inherited diseases gives urine a characteristic mousy or musty odor?
Select one:
a) maple syrup urine disease
b) cystinosis
c) alkaptonuria
d) phenylketonuria
d) phenylketonuria
45Which of the following microscopy techniques is used to confirm the presence of fat (i.e., cholesterol)?
Select one:
a) brightfield
b) polarizing
c) phase-contrast
d) interference contrast
b) polarizing
46Which type of crystal is found in acidic urine?
Select one:
a) calcium oxalate
b) amorphous phosphates
c) triple phosphates
d) ammonium biurate
a) calcium oxalate