Day 1 Part 1

Which of the following forces is responsible for the rise or drop in potential energy of an object?
a. Gravitational force c. Repulsive magnetism
b. Attractive magnetism d. All of the above

Which linear defect is produced by shear stress applied to the crystal lattice?
a) Frenkel defect
b) Screw dislocation
c) Schottky defect
d) Vacancy defect

Which defect centers around the line at the end of an extra half-plane of atoms?
a) Screw dislocation
b) Edge dislocation
c) Frenkel defect
d) Vacancy

What is a linear or one-dimensional crystalline defect where some atoms are misaligned?
a) Vacancy defect
b) Grain boundary defect
c) Dislocation
d) Frenkel defect

Also called dislocation effect, when there is a big difference between cations and anions
a) Frenkel defect
b) Schottky defect
c) Vacancy defect
d) Self-interstitial

In ionic crystals, which defect involves the simultaneous absence of a cation and an anion?
a) Frenkel defect
b) Schottky defect
c) Vacancy defect
d) Self-interstitial

Which type of defect involves both a vacancy and a nearby interstitial?
a) Vacancy defect
b) Frenkel defect
c) Schottky defect
d) Surface defect

Which defect occurs when an extra atom is squeezed into a small void space in the lattice?
a) Vacancy
b) Self-interstitial
c) Schottky defect
d) Edge dislocation

What is a vacancy defect?
a) An atom occupying two lattice sites
b) A normally occupied site that is missing an atom
c) An atom squeezed into an interstitial site
d) A pair of cation and anion vacancies

Which best describes a point defect?
a) An irregularity in the surface of the crystal
b) A missing or misplaced atom in the lattice structure
c) A crack between grain boundaries
d) A dislocation line within the crystal

What is a crystalline defect?
a) A perfectly aligned crystal lattice
b) A lattice irregularity on the order of an atomic diameter
c) A large crack inside a crystal
d) An external scratch on a crystal surface

This refers to the number of atoms touching a particular
atom, or the number of nearest neighbors of an atom.
A. Coordination number C. Atomic Packing Factor
B. Miller indices
D. Bravais Structure

The element beryllium has what crystal structure?
A. FCC
C. HCP
B. BCC
D. CCP

What is the atomic packing factor of simple cubic (SC)
crystal structure?
A. 0.68
C. 0.74
B. 0.52
D. 0.93

What two crystal structures have the same atomic packing
factor?
A. FCC and HCP
C. BCC and HCP
B. BCC and CCP
D. CCP and FCC

What two crystal structures have the same coordination
number?
A. FCC and HCP
C. BCC and HCP
B. BCC and CCP
D. CCP and FCC

Other term for FCC

Other Term for Cubic Close Packed

What two crystal structures have the same total number of
atoms inside?
A. FCC and HCP
C. BCC and HCP
B. BCC and CCP
D. CCP and FCC

Calculate the volume of an FCC unit cell in terms of the
atomic radius R.
A. V = 16R^3√2
C. V = 4R^3√4
B. V = 16R^3√3
D. V = 4R^3√3

- A shorthand notation to describe certain crystallographic
planes in a material.

A. Atomic Packing Factor
B. Coordination Number
C. Miler Indices

The sum of the sphere volumes of all atoms within a unit
cell (assuming the atomic hard sphere model) divided by
the unit cell volume


A. Atomic Packing Factor
B. Coordination Number
C. Miler Indices

The number of atoms, that a central atom holds as its
nearest neighbors in a crystal

A. Atomic Packing Factor
B. Coordination Number
C. Miler Indices

The equivalent of six atoms is contained in each unit cell;
one-sixth of each of the 12 top and bottom face corner
atoms, one-half of each of the 2 center face atoms, and all 3
midplane interior atoms.

One-eighth of each of the eight corner atoms and one-half
of each of the six face atoms, or a total of four whole atoms,
may be assigned to a given unit cell.

Two atoms are associated with each ____ unit cell: the
equivalent of one atom from the eight corners, each of which is shared among eight unit cells, and the single center atom.

Composed of atoms on the lattice points of a cube, thus
having a total of one atom in each unit cell

The packing efficiency of HCP is:
a) 0.52
b) 0.68
c) 0.74
d) 0.80

The coordination number of HCP is:
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12

The ratio c/a for ideal HCP is approximately:
a) 1.41
b) 1.63
c) 2.00
d) 1.73

In HCP, atoms are arranged in:
a) ABABAB stacking sequence
b) ABCABC stacking sequence
c) Random arrangement
d) Linear packing

Which of the following metals exhibit HCP structure?
a) Titanium (Ti), Magnesium (Mg), Zinc (Zn), Cadmium (Cd)
b) Aluminum (Al), Copper (Cu), Nickel (Ni)
c) Tungsten (W), Chromium (Cr), Vanadium (V)
d) Polonium (Po) only

The packing efficiency of HCP is:
a) 0.52
b) 0.68
c) 0.74
d) 0.80

The coordination number of HCP is:
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12

How many atoms are present in an HCP unit cell per parallelpipe and ilan parallelpipe in HCP unit cell

How many atoms are present in an HCP unit cell?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

Which of the following metals crystallize in FCC structure?
a) Cu, Al, Au, Ni, Pt
b) Fe, W, V, Cr
c) Mg, Zn, Be, Cd
d) Po only

Atoms in FCC are located at:
a) Only corners
b) Corners + face centers
c) Corners + body center
d) Corners + edges

The packing factor of an FCC structure is:
a) 0.52
b) 0.68
c) 0.74
d) 0.80

What is the coordination number of FCC?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 10

How many atoms are present in a face-centered cubic (FCC) unit cell?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Which of the following metals have BCC structure at room temperature?

a) Tungsten (W), Iron (Fe), Chromium (Cr)
b) Aluminum (Al), Gold (Au), Silver (Ag)
c) Magnesium (Mg), Zinc (Zn), Cadmium (Cd)
d) Copper (Cu), Nickel (Ni), Platinum (Pt)

In a BCC structure, atoms are located at:
a) Each corner only
b) Corners + face centers
c) Corners + body center
d) Top and bottom planes

The packing efficiency (packing factor) of a BCC structure is:
a) 0.52
b) 0.68
c) 0.74
d) 0.80

What is the coordination number of a BCC crystal?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 4

In a BCC unit cell, how many atoms are present per unit cell?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

Which of the following elements crystallizes in a simple cubic structure?
a) Iron (Fe)
b) Polonium (Po)
c) Copper (Cu)
d) Magnesium (Mg)

The packing factor of a simple cubic (SC) structure is:
a) 0.68
b) 0.74
c) 0.52
d) 0.60

The coordination number of a simple cubic (SC) structure is:
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 4

How many atoms are present per unit cell in a simple cubic structure?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

There are ____ known crystals structures that exists called
the Bravais crystal structures

There are 14 known crystals structures that exists called

- The arrangement of the atoms in a material into a regular
repeatable pattern

This refers to a crystal system with unequal axes with all
angles at right angle
A. Tetragonal
C. Orthorhombic
B. Rhombohedral
D. Hexagonal

The arrangement of the atoms in a material into a regular
repeatable pattern.
A. Crystal structure
C. Domain
B. Atomic structure
D. Lattice

This refers to distance between two nuclei of atoms.
A. bond length
C. bond distance
B. bond radius
D. All of these.

This refers to a crystal system with two equal axes with one
angle equal to 120o
A. Tetragonal
C. Orthorhombic
B. Rhombohedra
D. Hexagonal

The triclinic system differs from monoclinic in that:
A. All axes are equal
B. No angles are equal to 90°
C. All angles are 90°
D. Two axes are equal

In the tetragonal system, the axes satisfy which relation?
A. a = b = c
B. a = b ≠ c
C. a ≠ b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

The tetragonal system can be described as a cube that has undergone a:
A. Vertical stretch
B. Horizontal stretch
C. Slant base
D. Slant height

In the cubic system, all edges are equal and all angles are:
A. 120°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. Variable

Which crystal system has axes a ≠ b ≠ c, with α = β = 90°, γ ≠ 90°?
A. Triclinic
B. Monoclinic
C. Orthorhombic
D. Rhombohedral

Which crystal system has three unequal axes with no equal angles?
A. Monoclinic
B. Triclinic
C. Orthorhombic
D. Hexagonal

Which crystal system has three equal axes, with equal angles not equal to 90°?
A. Rhombohedral
B. Hexagonal
C. Tetragonal
D. Orthorhombic

Which crystal system has two axes equal, one unequal, with two 90° angles and one 120°?
A. Hexagonal
B. Rhombohedral
C. Triclinic
D. Cubic

Which crystal system has two equal axes and one different, with all angles 90°?
A. Tetragonal
B. Hexagonal
C. Rhombohedral
D. Monoclinic

Which crystal system has three unequal axes but all angles equal to 90°?
A. Monoclinic
B. Triclinic
C. Orthorhombic
D. Hexagonal

Which crystal system has three equal axes and all angles equal to 90°?
A. Tetragonal
B. Cubic
C. Hexagonal
D. Rhombohedral

The angles between axes in triclinic crystals are:
A. All 90°
B. Two 90°
C. None 90°
D. All equal but not 90°

In the triclinic system, the relation among axes is:
A. a = b = c
B. a = b ≠ c
C. a ≠ b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

In the monoclinic system, the angles between axes are:
A. All equal 90°
B. Two equal 90°
C. None equal 90°
D. One equal 120°

In the monoclinic system, the axes relation is:
A. a = b = c
B. a = b ≠ c
C. a ≠ b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

In the rhombohedral system, the angles between axes are:
A. All 90°
B. Two 90°, one 120°
C. All equal, but none 90°
D. All unequal

The rhombohedral system has axes relation:
A. a = b = c
B. a ≠ b ≠ c
C. a = b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

What are the angles between axes in the hexagonal system?
A. All 90°
B. Two 90°, one 120°
C. None equal 90°
D. All unequal

In the hexagonal system, which relation among axes is correct?
A. a = b = c
B. a = b ≠ c
C. a ≠ b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

What are the angles between axes in the orthorhombic system?
A. All angles 90°
B. All angles unequal
C. Two angles 90°
D. One angle 120°

In the orthorhombic crystal system, the axes satisfy:
A. a = b = c
B. a ≠ b ≠ c
C. a = b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

What are the angles between axes in a tetragonal crystal system?
A. All equal 120°
B. All equal 90°
C. Two equal 90°, one unequal
D. None equal

In the tetragonal crystal system, the axes satisfy which condition?
A. a = b = c
B. a = b ≠ c
C. a ≠ b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

What are the angles between axes in a cubic crystal system?
A. All equal 120°
B. Two equal 90°, one unequal
C. All angles equal 90°
D. No angles are equal

In the cubic crystal system, the relationship between the axes is:
A. a ≠ b ≠ c
B. a = b = c
C. a = b ≠ c
D. a ≠ b = c

It is the enthalpy change associated with the condensation
of gaseous positive and negative ion into a crystal.
A. Lattice energy
C. Enthalpy energy
B. Raoult’s Law
D. Schottky defect

An elemental solid having a different crystal structure,
usually due to the prevailing temperature and pressure.
A. Crystal
C. Polycrystal
B. Allotrope
D. Amorphous

A material whose atomic arrangement occurs as periodic,
repeating structures over large distances
A. Crystalline
C. Polycrystalline
B. Solid
D. Amorphous

The ability of an element (like carbon or sulfur) to exist in different crystalline forms in the same physical state is called:
A. Polymorphism
B. Isomerism
C. Allotropy
D. Amorphism

Allotrope is also called wat?

Materials with binding energy in the range of 150 – 370
kcal/mol are considered to exhibit what type of bonding?
A. Ionic
C. Covalent
B. Metallic
D. Secondary

In ammonia (NH₃), what is the approximate H–N–H bond angle?
A. 109.5°
B. 107°
C. 104.5°
D. 120°

What is the bond angle in boron trifluoride (BF₃)?
A. 180°
B. 120°
C. 109.5°
D. 104.5°

In methane (CH₄), what is the bond angle between hydrogen atoms?
A. 120°
B. 109.5°
C. 90°
D. 104.5°

What is the bond angle in carbon dioxide (CO₂)?
A. 109.5°
B. 104.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°

What is the approximate bond angle in a water (H₂O) molecule?
A. 109.5°
B. 104.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°

What is the bond angle of water?
A. 109.5 degrees
C. 105 degrees
B. 110 degrees
D. 107.5 degrees

Ionic bonding was supposed to be believed at first as
________.
A. Sharing of electrons of nonmetallic and nonmetallic
atoms
B. Sharing of electrons of metallic and nonmetallic atoms
C. Transfer of electrons of nonmetallic and nonmetallic
atoms
D. Transfer of electrons of metallic and nonmetallic atoms

It is a type of bond where relatively large interatomic forces
are created by the sharing of electrons to form a bond with
localized directional atoms. It is called the ________ bond.
A. Ionic
C. Covalent
B. Metallic
D. Secondary

It refers to sharing of delocalized electron to form strong
bond between atoms. It is called the ________ bond.
A. Ionic
C. Covalent
B. Metallic
D. Secondary

in this type of bond, a relatively large interatomic force that
tends to energy transfer from one atom to another that are
bonded together by coulombic force. It is called the
________ bond.
A. Ionic
C. Covalent
B. Metallic
D. Secondary

Changes of state from where particles are able to move
freely to a state where they can no longer move freely and
can only vibrate.

A. Melting
C. Evaporation
B. Freezing
D. Condensation

The movement of liquid through a phosphor diaphragm of
other permeable solid as a result of an applied electric field.

A. Electrophoresis
C. Electrical diffusion
B. Electron osmosis
D. All of these are correct

What refers to the reciprocal dispersion of optical
materials?
A. Nusselt number
C. Abbe number
B. Prandtl number
D. Schmidt number

The _____________, sometimes called the breakdown
strength, represents the magnitude of an electric field
necessary to produce breakdown.

A. Avalanche breakdown
C. Working voltage
B. Dielectric constant
D. Dielectric strength

A device used in biotelemetry for monitoring the
physiologic activity of an animal, such as pH values of
stomach acid

A. radio pill
C. biomed
B. biotelemeter
D. pH meter

What is the strongest material?
A. Carbon nanotubes
C. Fullerenes
B. Shape memory alloys
D. Diamond

Materials that have electrical properties that are
intermediate between the metals or metal alloys and
ceramics or polymers
A. metalloid
C. insulator
B. porcelain
D. semiconductor

These are materials, commonly used as actuators, which
after having been deformed revert back to their original
shapes when temperature is changed.


A. Shape memory alloys
B. Piezoelectric materials
C. Magnetorestrictive materials
D. Electrorheological materials

A composite material composed of large ceramic particles
distributed over a ceramic binder, used chiefly in structural
applications.

A. cement
C. concrete
B. nanofiber
D. fiberglass

Materials composed of more than one material type and are
designed to display a combination of the best
characteristics of each component material.
A. Polymers
C. Metals
B. Ceramics
D. Composites

- Composed of two (or more) individual materials, which
come from the metals, ceramics, and polymers

A. composites
B. Semiconductors
C. Biomaterials

Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules
bonded together by another natural polymer called
_______.
A. cellulose
C. latex
B. plastic
D. lignin

The average number of mers in the molecule of a polymer
is known as:
A. Degree of polymerization
B. Polymerization coefficient
C. Copolymerization constant
D. All of the choices are correct

Polymers are materials that are found on __________ on
the periodic table.
A. Group 1 – 5
C. Group 4BA
B. Group 3 – 12 D. Group 1A

in polymers, what refers to a large molecule with alternating
mers?
A. Copolymer
C. Cross – linking
B. Monomer
D. Vulcanization

_____________ refers to the strong primary chemical bonds
which forms some of the polymeric materials.
A. Polymerization
C. Cross – linking
B. Vulcanization
D. Copolymerization

Which of the following plastics does not burn but rather
extinguishes itself?
A. polyester
C. acrylic
B. nylon
D. propylene

Polymer comes from Greek words poly which means many
and meros which means _________.
A. metal
C. material
B. part
D. plastic

The term “blend” refers to materials that are mixture of
_______?
A. two or more polymers
B. metal and non – metal
C. a polymeric and a ceramic
D. two or more ceramic

- Multifunctional monomers forming three or more active
covalent bonds, make three-dimensional networks

a. Linear
b. branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Network

Other term for Polyerathane

a. Linear
b. branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Network

Other term for Vulcanized Rubber

a. Linear
b. branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Network

- Adjacent linear chains are joined one to another at various
positions by covalent bonds

a. Linear
b. branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Network

- Polymers synthesized in which side - branch chains are
connected to the main ones

a. Linear
b. branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Network

GIVE EXAMPLE

Are those in which the repeat units are joined together
end to end in single chains
a. Linear
b. branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Network

Give examples

Chains may be composed of two or more different repeat
units

and give its types

- When all the repeating units along a chain are of the same
type

is the basic repeating unit of a polymer
- Refers to the small molecule from which a polymer is
synthesized

include the familiar plastic and rubber materials
- Many of them are organic compounds that are chemically
based on carbon, hydrogen, and other nonmetallic
elements (O,N, and Si)

- They have very large molecular structures, often chain-
like in nature that have a backbone of carbon atoms

Which of the following is not a ceramic?
A. Glass
C. Diamond
B. Graphite
D. Carbo

_______ materials are approximately considered to be
those having a fracture strain of less than about 5%.
A. Ceramic
C. Ductile
B. Brittle
D. Malleable

Ceramic materials are found on ________ on the periodic
table

A. Group 1 – 5
C. Group 4B
B. Group 3 – 12
D. Group 1A

_________ are composed of ceramics and metals
A. Cement
C. Glass
B. Metal matrix
D. Cermets

The process of gluing the powders together with glasses to
form other ceramic materials.

A. Vitrification
C. Sintering
B. Ceramication
D. Polymerization

The process where a physical mixture of carbide and
powdered metal is heated in order to solidify the powder
into single piece.
A. Vitrification
C. Sintering
B. Ceramication
D. Polymerization

Oxides, nitrides and carbides are main compositional
classes of what type of material?
A. ceramics
C. composites
B. metals
D. polymers

This refers to lowering the temperature of a liquid below its
melting point before it becomes solid.
A. Sub cooling
C. Super cooling
B. Supercritical
D. Subcritical

- The materials that are employed at elevated temperatures
and often in reactive environments
A. Glass.
B. Clay
C. Refractory Ceramics

What are compounds of metallic and nonmetallic elements
called?
A. Ceramics
C. Semiconductor
B. Metalloids
D. Alloys

The characteristic feature of these materials is that when
mixed with water, they form a paste that subsequently sets
and hardens

A. Glass.
B. Clay
C. Refractory Ceramics
D. Cement

Used to wear, grind, or cut away other material, which
necessarily is softer
- Diamond, silicon carbide, tungsten carbide, corundum,
and silica sand are the most common examples

A. Glass.
B. Clay
C. Refractory Ceramics
D. Abrasive Ceramics

the principal component of the white wares and structural
clay products

- They are most frequently oxides, nitrides, and carbides

- Defined as super cooled liquids because they do not
crystallize when cooled below their melting points.

Which is more resistant to high temperatures and harsh environments?
a. ceramics
b. metals
c. polymers- The materials that are employed at elevated temperatures
and often in reactive environments

- Comes from the Greek word keramikos, which means
“burnt stuff”.
- The desirable properties of these materials are normally
achieved through a high-temperature heat treatment

Which of the following is true about refractory metals?
A. Resistant to oxidation
B. Resistant to corrosion
C. Resistant to heat
D. Resistant to sun’s rays

What metal has the lowest boiling temperature?
A. Mercury
C. Steel
B. Iron
D. Molybdenum

What refers to the property of a substance to be repelled by
a magnet due to the presence of paired electrons?

A. Paramagnetic
C. Diamagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
D. Ferrimagnetic

This metal is alloyed with steel to give it corrosion
resistance properties, resulting in stainless steel.
A. vanadium
C. molybdenum
B. magnesium
D. chromium

This element is used in modern, super strong permanent
magnets because of their high coercivities
A. beryllium
C. yttrium
B. neodymium
D. alnico

What type of materials behaves like iron when placed in a
magnetic field?
A. Crystals
C. Amorphous
B. Ferromagnetic
D. Metalloids

Which of the following is not a refractory metal?

A. Lead
C. Tungsten
B. Niobium
D. Tantalum

Metals with:

Resistant to heat and wear
High Density

Melting Point >2000 Celsius

Magnetic Properties of Metal

Weak Repulsion

and give examples

Magnetic Properties of Metal

Weak Attraction

and give examples

Magnetic Properties of Metal

Strong Attraction

and give examples

Which of the following metals has the highest electrical
conductivity?
A. Zinc
C. Gold
B. Copper
D. Aluminum

These materials have a large number of non-localized
electrons, as an effect are very good conductors of
electricity and heat. They are strong yet deformable, and
extensively used in structural applications.
A. Polymers
C. Metals
B. Ceramics
D. Composites

The traditional process for making metallic components
begins with melting of the metal or alloy.
- If the molten mass is poured into a mold of some type and
solidified, the process is

Composition of Stainless Steel

Composition of Steel

Composition of Cast Iron

Composition of Pewter

Compositions of Bronze

Compositions of Brass

The addition of other elements into a metal

What are the main or fundamental classes of engineering
materials?

A. Composite materials and noncomposite materials
B. Metallic materials, polymeric materials and ceramic
materials
C. Metallic materials, nonmetallic materials, polymeric
materials and ceramic materials
D. Metallic materials and nonmetallic materials

Classification of Materials

Give the Fundamental Classes and Major ClassesThe addition of other elements into a metal

A ______is a material trait in terms of the kind and magnitude of response to a specific imposed stimulus.

The ______ of a material usually relates to the arrangement of its internal components.

Designing or engineering the structure of a material toproduce a predetermined set of properties

The study of the nature, behavior, and use of materialsapplied to science and technology-It involves investigating the relationships that existbetween the structures and properties of materials-An interdisciplinary field applying the propertiesof matter to various areas of science and engineering.

The primary environmental impact of urban sprawl is:
a. Decreased air quality due to increased vehicle emissions
b. Increased biodiversity in urban areas
c. Improved access to green spaces
d. Reduced energy consumption

Which of the following best describes "extended producer
responsibility" (EPR)?
a. Regulations that force consumers to reduce waste
b. A program that encourages producers to take
responsibility for the entire lifecycle of their products,
including disposal
c. Requirements for government agencies to manage waste
disposal
d. A law that mandates waste recycling only in urban areas

What is the goal of the Paris Agreement?
a. Eliminate fossil fuel usage
b. Keep global warming below 2°C
c. Reduce ozone depletion
d. Promote nuclear energy

Which of the following gases is not included in the Kyoto
Protocol’s “basket of six” GHGs?
a. CO₂ c. CH₄
b. NH₃ d. SF₆

Which protocol was established to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions?
a. Montreal Protocol c. Basel Convention
b. Kyoto Protocol d. Stockholm Convention

What is the primary environmental concern with
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)?
a. Water pollution c. High global warming potential
b. Toxicity to plants d. Ozone layer depletion

What is the primary goal of carbon capture and storage
(CCS)?
a. Reduce air pollution
b. Remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
c. Improve energy efficiency
d. Increase fossil fuel production

Ranking of GWP Compounds (BASKET OF 6)

Photochemical smog is typically formed in:
a. Forested areas
b. Coastal regions
c. Urban centers under high sunlight
d. Areas with low wind speed and low temperature

`What is the primary reaction mechanism behind the
formation of tropospheric ozone?
a. CO₂ reacting with water vapor
b. VOCs and NOx reacting under sunlight
c. SO₂ and NO₂ condensation
d. Methane combustion

Give the air Quality Index values and the air quality

Which gas has the highest global warming potential
(GWP)?
a. CO₂ c. CH₄
b. N₂O d. SF₆

The Air Quality Index (AQI) includes which of the following
parameters?
a. PM, NO₂, O₃, CO
b. VOCs, UV, noise
c. Temperature, wind speed, humidity
d. Methane, ethane, propane

What is a typical emission factor used for calculating CO₂
from electricity,

What is a typical emission factor used for calculating CO₂
from diesel combustion?
a. 0.5 kg CO₂/L c. 4.2 kg CO₂/L
b. 2.68 kg CO₂/L d. 7.9 kg CO₂/L

Emissions from leased buildings are typically categorized
under:
a. Scope 1 c. Scope 3
b. Scope 2 d. Not reported

Which statement about Scope 2 emissions is true?
a. They are under direct operational control
b. They result from outsourced production
c. They arise from purchased energy
d. They relate to product use phase

Which sector is classified under Scope 3 emissions?
a. Purchased steam
b. Company-owned vehicles
c. Emissions from upstream transportation
d. On-site combustion

Give theree GHG Protocol scopes.

And give its key idea.

The GHG Protocol divides emissions into how many
Scopes?
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

The most significant source of anthropogenic methane is:
a. Volcanoes c. Lightning
b. Landfills d. Ocean currents

Which of the following environmental issues is most directly
linked to the increase in CO₂ concentration in the
atmosphere?
a. Loss of biodiversity c. Ozone layer depletion
b. Ocean acidification d. Desertification

What is the main source of carbon footprint in cement
production?
a. Fuel combustion
b. Transportation
c. Chemical decomposition of limestone
d. Electricity consumption

Carbon intensity refers to:
a. Energy per unit mass
b. CO₂ emitted per unit energy produced
c. Fuel weight per km traveled
d. Thermal conductivity of carbon

Which gas is excluded when calculating carbon dioxide
equivalent (CO₂e)?
a. CH₄ c. N₂O
b. O₃ d. CO₂

The term "carbon footprint" refers to:
a. Carbon dioxide emissions only
b. All greenhouse gas emissions in CO₂ equivalent
c. Only industrial emissions
d. The weight of carbon in a fuel sample

What is the typical COD/BOD ratio for industrial waste water

What is the typical COD/BOD ratio for domestic
wastewater?
a. 0.5 – 0.8 c. 3.0 – 4.0
b. 1.5 – 2.5 d. 5.0 – 6.0

If BOD is greater than COD, it indicates:
a. Presence of heavy metals
b. Non-biodegradable pollution
c. Error in measurement
d. Presence of toxic substances

Which reagent is used in the standard COD test?
a. Ferric chloride c. Potassium dichromate
b. Sodium hydroxide d. Calcium carbonate

COD is preferred over BOD when:
a. High accuracy is needed
b. Time constraints exist
c. Organic matter is highly biodegradable
d. Wastewater is free of chemicals

In BOD testing, why is dilution of the sample often required?
a. To improve nutrient balance
b. To prevent oxygen supersaturation
c. To avoid complete oxygen depletion
d. To accelerate oxidation

The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a water sample
measure:
a. Total dissolved solids
b. Heavy metal contamination
c. Organic pollutants
d. Nutrient levels

The final stage of wastewater treatment often involves:
a. sedimentation c. coagulation
b. disinfection d. aeration

What is the primary advantage of using anaerobic digestion
in wastewater treatment?
a. It produces a high-quality effluent for drinking water
b. It reduces the volume of sludge generated and produces
biogas
c. It is cheaper than aerobic processes
d. It increases the dissolved oxygen levels in the effluent

Sludge from primary settling tanks is mostly composed of:
a. Inorganic salts
b. Biologically active microorganisms
c. Heavy metals
d. Settleable organic solids

The main advantage of trickling filter over activated sludge
is:
a. lower power requirement
b. higher BOD removal efficiency
c. smaller footprint
d. better pathogen removal

What is the primary advantage of using ozone for water
disinfection?
a. It produces no byproducts
b. It is more effective than chlorine against viruses
c. It has a longer residual effect than chlorine
d. It is the cheapest method available

What is the purpose of aeration in water treatment?
a. Removal of pathogens
b. Oxidation of iron and manganese
c. Reduction of temperature
d. Decreasing pH

Which of the following is the best method to remove arsenic
from water?
a. Boiling c. Reverse osmosis
b. Chlorination d. Sand filtration

What is the most common method for removing nitrates
from water?
a. Coagulation c. Ion exchange
b. Flocculation d. Chemical precipitation

67. Which of the following processes is used to remove
phosphorus from wastewater?
a. biological denitrification
b. chemical precipitation with alum or ferric chloride
c. membrane filtration
d. adsorption onto activated carbon

What is the main drawback of using activated carbon in
water treatment?
a. It releases harmful byproducts
b. It requires high energy input
c. It has a limited adsorption capacity and needs frequent
replacement
d. It is only effective against suspended solids

The removal of dissolved organic carbon (DOC) in water
treatment is typically done using:
a. Ozonation c. Reverse osmosis
b. Sand filtration d. Activated carbon adsorption

Reverse osmosis (RO) is mainly used to remove:
a. Suspended solids c. Dissolved salts
b. Bacteria d. Heavy metals

What is the role of a flocculant in water treatment?
a. Reduces pH levels
b. Increases microbial activity
c. Helps in aggregation of fine particles
d. Removes dissolved salts

Which of the following is a common coagulant used in water
treatment?
a. Activated carbon c. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Aluminum sulfate d. Ozone

What is the primary purpose of coagulation in water
treatment?
a. Remove dissolved gases
b. Kill bacteria
c. Destabilize suspended particles
d. Remove dissolved salts

Which of the acid combination is the dominant composition
of acid rain?
a. nitric acid and carbonic acid
b. nitric acid and sulfuric acid
c. carbonic acid and sulfuric acid
d. none of the above

The rate at which temperature in the atmosphere changes
with altitude is called
a. vertical rate c. temperature change
b. lapse rate d. thermal rate

In which atmospheric layer are radio waves reflected back to Earth
A) Troposphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Thermosphere
D) Stratosphere

Commercial airplanes usually fly in the lower part of which layer?
A) Mesosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Exosphere

Which layer gradually transitions into outer space?
A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Exosphere
D) Troposphere

The auroras (Northern and Southern Lights) appear in which layer?
A) Thermosphere
B) Exosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Troposphere

Meteors burn up in which layer of the atmosphere?
A) Thermosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Troposphere

Weather events like rain, snow, and storms occur in which layer?
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Which layer contains the ozone layer that protects us from UV rays?
A) Stratosphere
B) Troposphere
C) Thermosphere
D) Mesosphere

. Satellites that orbit Earth are mostly found in which layer?
A) Exosphere
B) Troposphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Stratosphere

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the International Space Station?
A) Troposphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Exosphere
D) Mesosphere

Pick out the wrong statement.
a. The concentric atmosphere layer just above troposphere
is called stratosphere, which is rich in ozone.
b. Mesosphere is characterized by very low atmosphere
pressure and low temperature.
c. Troposphere is a dusty zone containing water vapor and
clouds.
d. The radio waves used in the long-distance radio
communication are reflected to earth by stratosphere.

It is an odorless and colorless gas that is lethal to humans
with exposure as short as a few minutes to concentrations
exceeding 5000 ppm. It reacts with hemoglobin in the blood
rendering the latter incapable of carrying oxygen to the
body.
a. carbon monoxide c. sulfur dioxide
b. hydrogen supplied d. sulfur trioxide

Collective term for the initial POPs identified by the
Stockholm Convention
a. Dirty 12 c. Dirty Dozens
b. 12 POPs d. EDCs

A global treaty that aims to diminish and eventually phase
out chlorofluorocarbons.
a. Montreal Protocol c. Stockholm Convention
b. Kyoto Protocol d. none of these

“Smokey Mountain” is a typical example of a facility for solid
waste. It is classified as
a. open dumping site c. transfer station
b. sanitary landfill d. material recovery facility

Clean air Act is otherwise known as
a. RA 6969 c. RA 9003
b. RA 8749 d. RA 9275

Clean water Act is otherwise known as
a. RA 6969 c. RA 9003
b. RA 8749 d. RA 9275

Ecological Solid Waste Act of 2000 is otherwise known as
a. RA 6969 c. RA 9003
b. RA 8749 d. RA 9275

It is the international salute that is currently the primary
basis of the Philippines in its latest environmental dispute
with Canada.
a. Kyoto Protocol c. Copenhagen Talks
b. Basel Convention d. Montreal Protocol

Which examples belong to the Other category – Code 7?
A) Toys, sippy cups, CDs/DVDs, lenses
B) Laundry baskets, bread bags, squeeze bottles
C) Yogurt containers, coffee cup lids, kitty litter buckets
D) Styrofoam cups, egg cartons, to-go containers

Which products are made from PS (Polystyrene) – Code 6?
A) Milk jugs, shampoo bottles, laundry detergent containers
B) Styrofoam cups, solo cups, egg cartons, to-go containers
C) Laundry baskets, bread bags, plastic film
D) Water bottles, soda bottles, peanut butter jars

Which examples belong to PP (Polypropylene) – Code 5?
A) Yogurt containers, amber-colored pill bottles, coffee cup lids, straws, kitty litter buckets
B) Vinyl, tubing/pipe, siding
C) Styrofoam cups, solo cups, egg cartons
D) Toys, sippy cups, CDs/DVDs, lenses

Which products are made from LDPE (Low-Density Polyethylene) – Code 4?
A) Laundry baskets, bread bags, squeeze bottles, plastic film
B) Yogurt containers, coffee cup lids, kitty litter buckets
C) Water bottles, soda bottles, peanut butter jars
D) Styrofoam cups, solo cups, egg cartons

Which group of products is made from PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride) – Code 3?
A) Toys, sippy cups, CDs/DVDs
B) Vinyl, tubing/pipe, siding, auto product bottles
C) Yogurt containers, amber-colored pill bottles, straws
D) Bread bags, squeeze bottles, laundry baskets

Which of these are examples of HDPE (High-Density Polyethylene) – Code 2?
A) Laundry baskets, bread bags, plastic film
B) Milk jugs, 5-gallon buckets, shampoo bottles
C) Styrofoam cups, solo cups, egg cartons
D) Toys, sippy cups, lenses

Which of the following products are made from PETE (Polyethylene Terephthalate) – Code 1?
A) Water bottles, soda bottles, peanut butter jars
B) Milk jugs, laundry detergent containers, shampoo bottles
C) Vinyl, tubing/pipe, auto product bottles
D) Yogurt containers, coffee cup lids, straws

Amber-colored pill bottles are usually made from:
A) PETE
B) PP
C) PS
D) LDPE

Bread bags are associated with which code?
A) 4
B) 2
C) 5
D) 7

ubing and pipe are made from:
A) LDPE
B) PP
C) PVC
D) PETE

Shampoo bottles are made from:
A) PETE
B) PVC
C) HDPE
D) LDPE

Which code includes soda bottles as a common product?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Toys and sippy cups fall under which plastic code?
A) 2
B) 6
C) 7
D) 4

Styrofoam cups are associated with which code?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 3
D) 7

Yogurt containers are typically made of:
A) PS
B) PETE
C) PP
D) PVC

Laundry baskets are made from:
A) LDPE
B) HDPE
C) PP
D) PETE

Vinyl products fall under which plastic type?
A) PETE
B) PVC
C) LDPE
D) PS

Milk jugs are usually made from:
A) PETE
B) HDPE
C) LDPE
D) PP

Which code includes water bottles as a common product?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5

“Other” plastics are represented by which code number?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 3
D) 1

What plastic type has the code number 6?
A) PP
B) LDPE
C) PS
D) PVC

The number 5 plastic code is for:
A) Polystyrene
B) Polypropylene
C) Polyethylene Terephthalate
D) Polyvinyl Chloride

Theta Values in Getting K cotant in BOD calculation when temperature is not at 20 Celsius

LDPE (Low-Density Polyethylene) is represented by which number?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Which plastic type is represented by the number 3?
A) PP
B) PETE
C) PVC
D) PS

Which code represents HDPE (High-Density Polyethylene)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5

What is the code number for PETE (Polyethylene Terephthalate)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A code for plastics used for food wrapping, trash bags,
grocery bags and baby diapers.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

Water treatment that destroys disease-causing bacteria,
nuisance bacteria, parasites and other organisms and
removes soluble irons, manganese and hydrogen sulfide
from water.
a. disinfection c. chlorination
b. flocculation d. coagulation

Which of the following is NOT a secondary treatment
process?
a. Trickling filter c. Activated sludge process
b. Chlorination d. Anaerobic digestion

Process whereby coarse matter (suspended or floating) of
a certain size can be strained out of flowing water with the
aid of bars, fines wires or rocks.
a. screening c. flotation
b. sedimentation d. flocculation

Removal of all settleable particles rendered settleable
under the influence of gravity, basically the theory of gravity
under the influence of which all particles heavier than water
tend to settle down.
a. screening c. sedimentation
b. flotation d. flocculation

Hard water can be softened by
a. letting the calcium or magnesium ions settle out
b. passing it through an ion exchanger
c. chlorination
d. filtration

Type of wastewater treatment that employs physical and
chemical treatment methods to remove or reduce a high
percentage of suspended solids and toxic materials.
a. Primary Treatment c. Secondary Treatment
b. Tertiary Treatment d. Minor Treatment

What are the primary goals of three treatments in WASTE WATER TREATMENTS? (Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary)

If Alkalinity is greater than Total Hardness what will happen?

A sample of groundwater has an 150 milligrams per liter of
Ca2+ and 60 milligrams per liter of Mg2+, how would this
water be classified
a. soft c. slightly hard
b. moderately hard d. very Hard

If water is classified as “Soft,” what is its hardness range?
A) 0–60 mg/L
B) 61–120 mg/L
C) 121–180 mg/L
D) >180 mg/L

Which range is not possible for moderately hard water?
A) 80 mg/L
B) 100 mg/L
C) 65 mg/L
D) 150 mg/L

Very hard water has hardness values:
A) 61–120 mg/L
B) 121–180 mg/L
C) >180 mg/L
D) 0–60 mg/L

Which classification applies to water with 90 mg/L hardness as CaCO₃?
A) Soft
B) Moderately hard
C) Very hard
D) Hard

A water sample has 50 mg/L hardness as CaCO₃. Its classification is:
A) Very hard
B) Soft
C) Hard
D) Moderately hard

Which hardness range corresponds to “Hard” water?
A) 0–60 mg/L
B) 61–120 mg/L
C) 121–180 mg/L
D) >180 mg/L

Water hardness greater than 180 mg/L as CaCO₃ is classified as:
A) Moderately hard
B) Very hard
C) Soft
D) Hard

What is the classification of water with 121–180 mg/L hardness as CaCO₃?
A) Hard
B) Very hard
C) Moderately hard
D) Soft

Water with 61–120 mg/L hardness as CaCO₃ is considered:
A) Hard
B) Very hard
C) Moderately hard
D) Soft

What is the classification of water with hardness between 0–60 mg/L as CaCO₃?
A) Soft
B) Hard
C) Very hard
D) Moderately hard

Hardness of water is usually expressed in parts per million
of
a. MgSO4 c. Na2CO3
b. CaCO3 d. CaCl2

sum of all polyvalent cations (in consistent
units).

A trace metal which causes Minimata diseases is
a. cadmium c. mercury
b. silver d. chromium

A trace metal which causes Itai-itai diseases is
a. cadmium c. mercury
b. silver d. chromium

Involves the accumulation of trace metals through each
species of the food chain.
a. biomagnification c. anaerobic respiration
b. denitrification d. eutrophication

It is the phenomenon that results in the overabundance of
algae growth in bodies of water. It is also the natural
process of nutrient enrichment that occurs over time in a
body of water.
a. biomagnification c. anaerobic respiration
b. eutrophication d. thermal inversion

Basic components of fertilizer,
serves as nutrients for microbial growth in particular algae.

cause hardness in water and
formation of scales and deposits on pipelines and fittings if used
in industry.

Which of the following is not a physical characteristic of
wastewater?
a. odor c. color
b. turbidity d. hardness

In measuring Chemical Oxgen Demand what is the time and temperature

State the BOD for classes in Bodies of Water

In determination of BOD, the reaction takes place in the
dark because
a. The microorganisms are sensitive to light.
b. Oxygen is sensitive to light.
c. The reaction is enhanced in the dark.
d. Algae may be present and produce oxygen.

In the determination of BOD, the reaction takes place at
a. 20C c. 40C
b. 30 C d. 50C

Oxidizing Agent use in Getting Chemical Oxyegn Demand