1the pharyngeal apparatus consists of (x4) parts

arches, cleft, pouch, membrane (ectoderm outside, endoderm inside)
2components of the pharyngeal arch

nerve, artery, cartilageone, mesenchyme (mesoderm and neural crest)
3the first pharyngeal arch forms 2 prominences...

maxillary prominence (cheeks and upper jaw)
mandibular prominence (lower jaw)
7meckel's cartilage what arch
first
8stapes what arch
2nd arch
9styloid process what arch
2nd
10stylohyoid ligament what arch

2nd
11lesser horn of hyoid bonr what arch

2nd
12arch: greater horn of hyoid bone

3rd
13body of hyoid, what arch

2nd and 3rd arch
14thyoid cartilage, what arch

4th and 5th
15cricoid cartilage, what arch

5th
16trigeminal n, what arch
1st
17muscles of mastication, what arch
1st
18mylohyoid and anterior belly of digastric, wjat arch
1st
19tensor tympani, what arch
1st
20tensor veli palatini, what arch
1st
21facial n, what arch`
2nd
22muscles of facial ex[pression, arch
2nd
23stapedius, what arch
2nd
24stylohyoid, what arch
2nd
25posterior belly of dogastric, what arch
2nd
26glossopharyngeal n, what arch
3rd
27stylopharyngeus, what arch
3rd
28severe inflamation of the trigeminal n
trigeminal neuralgia
29laryngeal m, what arch
4th and 6th
30pharyngeal constrictors, what arch
4th and 6
31levator veli palatini what arch
4th and 6th
32vagus n what arch
4th and 6th
33what syndrome; what arch

treacher collins syndrome; first arch
34what disorder; what arch

pierre robin sequence; first arch
35what comes from the 1st pharyngeal pouch

pharyngeal tympanic tube
36what does the pharyngeal tympanic tube become

tympanic membrane
37what does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch form

palantne tonsils and fossa
38whatforms from the 3rd pharyngeal poucg
superior: inferior portion of parathyrid gland
inferior: thymus
39ewhat forms the 4th pharyngeal pouch
superior: superior part of parathyroud gland
iferior: UH pharygeal bodies (become C cells of thyroid)
40what forms from the 1st pharyngeal cleft
external auditory meatus
41what forms from the 2-4th pharyngeal clefdts
obliterated
42what can happen if the 2nd-4th pgaryngeal clefts arent oblitered
fistula or cyst can iccyr here
43cyst formed when 2nd to 4th pharyngeal pouches dont obliterate
lateral cervical cyst
44lateral cervical vyst with an opening to the world
external branchial fistula
45what is this?

lateral cervocal cyst
46what is this?

lateral cervical fistula
47where does the thyroiud start development

foramen cecum near tomgue
48what does this show?

ectopic thyroid
49what does this show?

ectopic thyroid
50what does this show

thyroglossal duct cyst
51what does thus show?

thyroid duct fistula
52what does this shjow?

plagiocoplady: flat head
53cranial part of skull
neurocranium
54facial patrt of skull
viscerocraniym
55Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
56Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
57what makes up the viscerocranium

single frontonasal
paired maxillary (2)
paired mandibular (2)
58Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
59Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
60Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
61Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
62Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
63Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
64Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
65Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
66what does this show; what suture

scaphocepgaly; saggital
67what does this show; what suturee

bilateral coronal synostosis; coronal sutures
68what does thus show? what suture

plagiocephaly; unilateral lambdoid suture
69what does this show. what suture?

metopic synostosis; metopic suture bilateral
70diagnosis?

acrania
71diagnosis

microcephally
72ddx

oblique cleft
73ddx

bilateral facial clefts
74ddx

macrostomia; maxillaru and mandibular arches failed to fuse correctlt
75minor abnormalities are present in _____ pf newborns (birth defects) major are present in _____-
15%; 3%
76anomalies account for _____- pf infanyt deayh
25%
77what causes birth defects (general breakdown)
55% are multifactorial
- 30% are genetic
- 15% are environmental
78result in morphologic alterations of already formed structures and are caused by destructive processes.
disruptions
79result from mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period. Clubfeet, for example, are caused by compression in the amniotic cavity
-may be reversible postnatally
deformations
80a group of anomalies occurring together that have a specific common cause. This term indicates that a diagnosis has been made and that the risk of recurrence is known.
syndrome
81congenotal malformatons causesd by rubella exposure
Cataracts, glaucoma, heart defects, hearing loss, tooth abnormalities
82congenital malformations caused by cytomegalovirus exposure
Microcephaly, visual impairment, intellectual disability, fetal death
83congenital abnormaloities xaused by herpes exposure
Microphthalmia, microcephaly, retinal dysplasia
84congenital abnormalities cxaused by toxoplasmosis exposure
Hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, microphthalmia
85congenital malformations caused by isotretinoin (accutane) exposure)
Isotretinoin embryopathy: small, abnormally shaped ears, mandibular hypoplasia, cleft palate, heart defects
86congenita malformaions caused by opioids exposure
Neural tube defects, heart defects, gastroschisis
87congenital malformations cxaused by SSRi exposire
Heart malformations, neural tube defects, anal atresia, facial clefts, and many other defects
88congenital malformations caused by valproic acid exposure
Neural tube defects; heart, craniofacial, and limb anomalies
89congenital malfornmations caused by amphetamines exposure
Cleft lip and palate, heart defects
90conenital defects caused by alcohol exposure
Cleft lip and palate, heart defects
91congenital defects caused by DES
Malformation of the uterus, uterine tubes, and upper vagina; vaginal cancer; malformed testes
92congenital defects caused by ,maternal diabetes
Various malformations; heart and neural tube defects most common
93congenital defects caused by maternal obesity
Neural tube defects, heart defects, omphalocele
94congenitak defects caused by organic mercury
Neurologic symptoms similar to those of cerebral palsy, prematurity, intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), stillbirths
95The skin is the largest organ in the body and has a dual origin: (1) A superficial layer, the epidermis, develops from the surface _________________. (2) A deep layer, the dermis, develops from the underlying ______________
ectoderm; mesenchyne
96What are the endoderm-lined structures of the branchial apparatus?
Pharyngeal pouches
97What is the ectoderm-lined structure of the branchial apparatus?
Pharyngeal grooves
98What structure forms where a pharyngeal pouch meets a groove?
Pharyngeal membrane
99What two prominences does the first pharyngeal arch form?
Maxillary and mandibular prominence
100What nerve innervates the first pharyngeal arch?
Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
101What skeletal derivatives come from the cartilage of the First Pharyngeal Arch?
Malleus, Incus, & Meckel's Cartilage
102What skeletal derivative comes from the dorsal end of the Second Pharyngeal Arch cartilage?
Stapes and the styloid process of the temporal bone
103What muscle of the Second Pharyngeal Arch is innervated by CN VII?
Muscles of facial expression
104What does the artery of the third pharyngeal arch persist as?
The common carotid and internal carotid arteries
105What structures form the tympanic membrane and the pharyngotympanic tube?
The First Pharyngeal Pouch growing outward and contacting the ectoderm
106What structure remains of the Second Pharyngeal Pouch after the growth of the palatine tonsils?
The tonsillar fossa
107What gland develops from the dorsal part of the Third Pharyngeal Pouch?
Inferior parathyroid gland
108What two parts of the ear are formed by the otic vesicle?
Utricle and Saccule
109What structure forms the Laryngeal Cartilages?
Fourth and Sixth Pharyngeal Arches
110What is the first endocrine gland to form, starting on about day 24?
Thyroid gland
111What is the superior opening of the thyroglossal duct that remains open on the dorsum of the tongue?
Foramen cecum
112What condition is characterized by an abnormally short frenulum anchoring the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity?
Ankyloglossia ("tongue-tie")
113What two parts form the skull?
Neurocranium (around the brain) and Viscerocranium (skeleton of the face)
What are the three components that derive the
114tympanic membrane germ layers?
Endoderm (pouch), ectoderm (groove), and mesenchyme (mesodermal in origin)
115What are the three middle ear ossicles?
Malleus, incus, and stapes
116What defect results from improper closing of the choroid fissure in the eye, creating a gap in the iris or iris and retina?
Coloboma
What layer of the embryonic skin proliferates to form the superficial layer called the
117periderm?
Surface ectoderm
118What layer is often associated with anencephaly and means "no calvaria"?
Acrania (cranioschisis)
What is the time frame for the
119Embryonic Period?
Weeks 3 through 8
When does
120Gastrulation occur?
Day 16
When does the
121Neural tube begin to close and the heart begin to beat?
Day 22
122the pharyngeal pouches are ___________ lined and the pharyngealk grooves are __________ lined
endoderm; ectoderm
123Between the two parts of the first arch there develops a thin membrane. this membrane has two layers: an outer layer of ectoderm and an inner layer of
endoderm→this membrane eventually ruptures and produces and opening from the pharynx
to the amniotic cavity
oropharyngeal membrane
124develop (during the 7th week) from solid cords growing from the oral cavity. Neural crest cells form the stroma
and the oral epithelium forms the parenchyma.
salivary glands
125results from persistence of the pharyngeal
grooves; branchial fistulas occur when the second arch fails to grow over the third and fourth
arches. Such a defect results in the formation of a...

branchial cyst/fistula
126normally pharyngeal cartilages disappear; remnants of cartilage or
bony elements under the skin anterior to the inferior 1/3 of the sternocleidomastoid persis

branchial vestiges
127nvolves abnormalities of the heart, parathyroid gland, face, and
thymus gland (the degree to which the immune system is affected varies). Affected
individuals will have congenital heart disease, unusual facial features with low-set ears, a
small receding mandible, wide-set eyes and are born without parathyroid glands

DiGeorge Anomaly
128abnormal development of 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches
• characteristic features include microtia, mandibular hypoplasia, microstomia, skin tags
and vertebral anomalies

Goldehar syndrome
129most of the tongue muscles are derived from ___________ these are occompanied by this n
occipital somites; hypoglossal n
130somatic sensation from the anterior 2/3 tongue from ...
CN V
131visceral sensation from the anterior 2/3 tongue is from...
CN VII
132_- provides sensory inervation to the posterior 1/3 tongue
CN IX
133__________- supplies the palatoglossus and carries taste from the root of the tongue
CN X
134abnormally short frenulum that anchors the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity

ankyloglossia
135paired and fuses with olfactory capsule, contributes to the
ethmoid bone
prechordial cartilage
136forms around the cranial end of the notochord and fuses with
cartilage from occipital somites→forms the base of occipital bone
parachordal cartilage
137forms around the developing pituitary gland (forms the body
of the sphenoid
hypopysial cartilage
138The development of the face begins in the 4th week around the ____________________ and relies
on organizing centers related to the forebrain
stomadeum
139nasal cavity is not continuous with the pharynx, blocked by nasal
epithelium (persistent buccopharyngeal membrane?); part of the CHARGE association

choanal atresia
140Charge associatio

• C = coloboma of the iris, choroid
• H = heart defect
• A = atresia of choanae
• R = retarded growth
• G = genitourinary anomaly
• E = ear defect
141type?

unilateral alveolar cleft
142type?

posterior cleft palate with cleft uvula
143these migrate into the skin and give rise to melanocyres
neural crest cells
144the dermis is derived from...
mesoderm underlying the ectoderm
145Beginning in the 6th week there are thickenings of the oral ectoderm (dental
lamina) from which tooth buds form and grow into the underlying mesenchyme. The
permanent teeth form from the deep parts of the tooth buds

bud stage
146Mesenchyme grows into each bud and gives it a cap shaped appearance. The
ectodermal portion is called the enamel organ. There are two layers to the enamel organ:
and inner and an outer layer. They are continuous at the epithelial root sheath. The deepest
part of the enamel organ invaginates and in this space the mesenchyme forms the dental
papilla that will give rise to the dental pulp. This entire structure is surrounded by a layer of
mesenchyme (dental sac). The dental sac will form the periodontal ligament and cementum
(holds the tooth in the socket

cap stage
147The developing tooth becomes bell-shaped. The mesenchyme of the dental
papilla forms odontoblasts (these cells produce predentin → dentin). The cells of the inner
enamel layer form ameloblasts that produce enamel. The root sheath regresses and become
associated with the root canal where it continues to form dentin. As a result the root canal is
reduced to a narrow cavity and the tooth has an outer, superficial covering of enamel and a
deeper layer of dentin. The enamel only covers the apex of the tooth

bell stage
148This disorder results from excessive keratinization of the skin, whereby the skin
appears as very dry and scaly. A harlequin fetus has an extreme form of this disorder where
the skin is abnormally thick and cracked; they typically die within a week of birth. A collodion
infant is covered in a thick membrane that cracks and eventually is shed revealing normal
skin

ichthyosis
149These anomalies are not true tumors but may appear as a mass within the skin.
They result from the persistence or surplus of blood or lymphatic vessels. Nevus flammeus
refers to a flat pink or red blotch that appears on the posterior aspect of the neck. A
hemangioma (port wine stain) also appears red but is found on the face

angiomas
150excessive hairiness; localized hypertrichosis is associated with spinal
bifida occulta

hypertrichosis
151In this condition the enamel is improperly formed and is soft
and friable and the teeth are yellow or brown because of exposed dentin. Dentinogenesis
imperfecta is a common condition where the odontoblasts fail to differentiate and dentin is
not calcified.

amelogenesis imperfecta
152abnormal development of the parts of the inner or middle ear
congenital deafness
153Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
154Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
155Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
156this gives rise to the membranous labarynth of the inner ear
otic placode
157cells from the otic placode and neural crest form the
vestibulocochlear ganglion
statoacostic ganglion
158the external and middle ear are formed by...

pharyngeal arch: external ear
1sy pharngeal pouch: eustacian tube and lines ear cavity
159the tympanic membrane is derived from...
endoderm (inside), ectoderm (outside), mesoderm
160bumps for cartilage and connective tissue; form certain parts of the ear

auricular hillpcks
161external ear defects are frequently occuring with _____________
chromosomal syndromes`
162most children with _______ have some degree of auditory dysfunction
autidm spectrum disorder
163Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
164Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
165a congenital condition where one or both ears are abnormally small or missing, sometimes with an absent ear canal (aural atresia)

microgria
166– incudostapedial deformity
– stapes fixation, hypoplasia or aplasia

klippel feil anomaly
167retina, posterior layers of iris and optic nerve tissue derivitive
neuroectoderm
168lens and corneal epithelium tissue derivitive
surface ectoderm
169fibrous and vascular coats tissue derivitive
mesoderm
170choroid, sclera and corneal endothelium tissue derivitive
neural crest
171the ends of the optic cup will form

retina
172the outer layer of the optic cup becomes? and the inner layer becomes?

pigmented layer; neural retina
173this space of the eye is associated with retinal detachment
intraretinal space

174the cillary bpody is derived from the _ and ______
choroid mesenchyme and optic cup
175the iris is formed at _____ and the gap becomes...
edge if oiptic cup; pupil
176this supplies the developing lens and normally atrophies andthe lebs becomes avascular

hyaloid artery
177the cornea is derived from (x3)

1. Surface ectoderm
2. Mesoderm – CT
3. Neural crest – corneal endothelium
178misalignment of the eyes

strabismus
179what causes strabismus

improper development or innervation of extraocular muscles
180a single eye

cyclopia
181synophthalmia

incomplete fusion of the eyes
182teardrop shaped pupils

coloboma
184congenital horner syndrome
185no iris

aniridiata
186no eyes

anophthalmia
187what causes congenital cataracts

ToRCH infections:
• Toxoplasmosis• other (syphilis, varicella, etc) • Rubella
• Cytomegalovirus• Herpes
188The most common primary intraocular
malignancy in children (1:100,000)
• Derived from neural progenitors
(photoreceptor lineage) with mutation
in RB
• “white reflex”, poor eyesight,
strabismus, pain, glaucoma, retinal
mass on ophthalmic exam

retinoblastoma
189Indicated by an increase in intraocular pressure caused by a defect or blockage of the draining system (scleral venous sinus)
Causes: genetic mutations (NF1), rubella infection, other eye defects

congenital glaucoma
190c;left lip what failed to fuse

Maxillary – medial nasal
191median cleft lip what failed tp fuse

Medial nasal – medial nasal
192olique facial cleft what failed tp fuse

Lateral nasal – maxillary
193cleft palat ewhat failed to fuse

Palatine shelves (secondary palate)
194macrostomia, what failed to fuse

Maxillary – mandibular (too little fusion)