embryo exam 3

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1
the pharyngeal apparatus consists of (x4) parts
arches, cleft, pouch, membrane (ectoderm outside, endoderm inside)
2
components of the pharyngeal arch
nerve, artery, cartilageone, mesenchyme (mesoderm and neural crest)
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the first pharyngeal arch forms 2 prominences...
maxillary prominence (cheeks and upper jaw)
mandibular prominence (lower jaw)
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what arch: malleus
first
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what arch incus
first
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what arch maxilla
first
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meckel's cartilage what arch
first
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stapes what arch
2nd arch
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styloid process what arch
2nd
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stylohyoid ligament what arch
2nd
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lesser horn of hyoid bonr what arch
2nd
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arch: greater horn of hyoid bone
3rd
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body of hyoid, what arch
2nd and 3rd arch
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thyoid cartilage, what arch
4th and 5th
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cricoid cartilage, what arch
5th
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trigeminal n, what arch
1st
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muscles of mastication, what arch
1st
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mylohyoid and anterior belly of digastric, wjat arch
1st
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tensor tympani, what arch
1st
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tensor veli palatini, what arch
1st
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facial n, what arch`
2nd
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muscles of facial ex[pression, arch
2nd
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stapedius, what arch
2nd
24
stylohyoid, what arch
2nd
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posterior belly of dogastric, what arch
2nd
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glossopharyngeal n, what arch
3rd
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stylopharyngeus, what arch
3rd
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severe inflamation of the trigeminal n
trigeminal neuralgia
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laryngeal m, what arch
4th and 6th
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pharyngeal constrictors, what arch
4th and 6
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levator veli palatini what arch
4th and 6th
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vagus n what arch
4th and 6th
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what syndrome; what arch
treacher collins syndrome; first arch
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what disorder; what arch
pierre robin sequence; first arch
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what comes from the 1st pharyngeal pouch
pharyngeal tympanic tube
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what does the pharyngeal tympanic tube become
tympanic membrane
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what does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch form
palantne tonsils and fossa
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whatforms from the 3rd pharyngeal poucg
superior: inferior portion of parathyrid gland
inferior: thymus
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ewhat forms the 4th pharyngeal pouch
superior: superior part of parathyroud gland
iferior: UH pharygeal bodies (become C cells of thyroid)
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what forms from the 1st pharyngeal cleft
external auditory meatus
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what forms from the 2-4th pharyngeal clefdts
obliterated
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what can happen if the 2nd-4th pgaryngeal clefts arent oblitered
fistula or cyst can iccyr here
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cyst formed when 2nd to 4th pharyngeal pouches dont obliterate
lateral cervical cyst
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lateral cervical vyst with an opening to the world
external branchial fistula
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what is this?
lateral cervocal cyst
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what is this?
lateral cervical fistula
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where does the thyroiud start development
foramen cecum near tomgue
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what does this show?
ectopic thyroid
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what does this show?
ectopic thyroid
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what does this show
thyroglossal duct cyst
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what does thus show?
thyroid duct fistula
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what does this shjow?
plagiocoplady: flat head
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cranial part of skull
neurocranium
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facial patrt of skull
viscerocraniym
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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what makes up the viscerocranium
single frontonasal
paired maxillary (2)
paired mandibular (2)
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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what does this show; what suture
scaphocepgaly; saggital
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what does this show; what suturee
bilateral coronal synostosis; coronal sutures
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what does thus show? what suture
plagiocephaly; unilateral lambdoid suture
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what does this show. what suture?
metopic synostosis; metopic suture bilateral
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diagnosis?
acrania
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diagnosis
microcephally
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ddx
oblique cleft
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ddx
bilateral facial clefts
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ddx
macrostomia; maxillaru and mandibular arches failed to fuse correctlt
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minor abnormalities are present in _____ pf newborns (birth defects) major are present in _____-
15%; 3%
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anomalies account for _____- pf infanyt deayh
25%
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what causes birth defects (general breakdown)
55% are multifactorial
- 30% are genetic
- 15% are environmental
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result in morphologic alterations of already formed structures and are caused by destructive processes.
disruptions
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result from mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period. Clubfeet, for example, are caused by compression in the amniotic cavity
-may be reversible postnatally
deformations
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a group of anomalies occurring together that have a specific common cause. This term indicates that a diagnosis has been made and that the risk of recurrence is known.
syndrome
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congenotal malformatons causesd by rubella exposure
Cataracts, glaucoma, heart defects, hearing loss, tooth abnormalities
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congenital malformations caused by cytomegalovirus exposure
Microcephaly, visual impairment, intellectual disability, fetal death
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congenital abnormaloities xaused by herpes exposure
Microphthalmia, microcephaly, retinal dysplasia
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congenital abnormalities cxaused by toxoplasmosis exposure
Hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, microphthalmia
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congenital malformations caused by isotretinoin (accutane) exposure)
Isotretinoin embryopathy: small, abnormally shaped ears, mandibular hypoplasia, cleft palate, heart defects
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congenita malformaions caused by opioids exposure
Neural tube defects, heart defects, gastroschisis
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congenital malformations cxaused by SSRi exposire
Heart malformations, neural tube defects, anal atresia, facial clefts, and many other defects
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congenital malformations caused by valproic acid exposure
Neural tube defects; heart, craniofacial, and limb anomalies
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congenital malfornmations caused by amphetamines exposure
Cleft lip and palate, heart defects
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conenital defects caused by alcohol exposure
Cleft lip and palate, heart defects
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congenital defects caused by DES
Malformation of the uterus, uterine tubes, and upper vagina; vaginal cancer; malformed testes
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congenital defects caused by ,maternal diabetes
Various malformations; heart and neural tube defects most common
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congenital defects caused by maternal obesity
Neural tube defects, heart defects, omphalocele
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congenitak defects caused by organic mercury
Neurologic symptoms similar to those of cerebral palsy, prematurity, intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), stillbirths
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The skin is the largest organ in the body and has a dual origin: (1) A superficial layer, the epidermis, develops from the surface _________________. (2) A deep layer, the dermis, develops from the underlying ______________
ectoderm; mesenchyne
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What are the endoderm-lined structures of the branchial apparatus?
Pharyngeal pouches
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What is the ectoderm-lined structure of the branchial apparatus?
Pharyngeal grooves
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What structure forms where a pharyngeal pouch meets a groove?
Pharyngeal membrane
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What two prominences does the first pharyngeal arch form?
Maxillary and mandibular prominence
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What nerve innervates the first pharyngeal arch?
Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

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What skeletal derivatives come from the cartilage of the First Pharyngeal Arch?
Malleus, Incus, & Meckel's Cartilage
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What skeletal derivative comes from the dorsal end of the Second Pharyngeal Arch cartilage?
Stapes and the styloid process of the temporal bone
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What muscle of the Second Pharyngeal Arch is innervated by CN VII?
Muscles of facial expression
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What does the artery of the third pharyngeal arch persist as?
The common carotid and internal carotid arteries
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What structures form the tympanic membrane and the pharyngotympanic tube?
The First Pharyngeal Pouch growing outward and contacting the ectoderm
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What structure remains of the Second Pharyngeal Pouch after the growth of the palatine tonsils?
The tonsillar fossa
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What gland develops from the dorsal part of the Third Pharyngeal Pouch?
Inferior parathyroid gland
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What two parts of the ear are formed by the otic vesicle?
Utricle and Saccule
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What structure forms the Laryngeal Cartilages?
Fourth and Sixth Pharyngeal Arches
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What is the first endocrine gland to form, starting on about day 24?
Thyroid gland
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What is the superior opening of the thyroglossal duct that remains open on the dorsum of the tongue?
Foramen cecum
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What condition is characterized by an abnormally short frenulum anchoring the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity?
Ankyloglossia ("tongue-tie")
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What two parts form the skull?
Neurocranium (around the brain) and Viscerocranium (skeleton of the face)

What are the three components that derive the
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tympanic membrane germ layers?
Endoderm (pouch), ectoderm (groove), and mesenchyme (mesodermal in origin)
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What are the three middle ear ossicles?
Malleus, incus, and stapes
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What defect results from improper closing of the choroid fissure in the eye, creating a gap in the iris or iris and retina?
Coloboma

What layer of the embryonic skin proliferates to form the superficial layer called the
117
periderm?
Surface ectoderm
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What layer is often associated with anencephaly and means "no calvaria"?
Acrania (cranioschisis)

What is the time frame for the
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Embryonic Period?
Weeks 3 through 8

When does
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Gastrulation occur?
Day 16

When does the
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Neural tube begin to close and the heart begin to beat?
Day 22
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the pharyngeal pouches are ___________ lined and the pharyngealk grooves are __________ lined
endoderm; ectoderm
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Between the two parts of the first arch there develops a thin membrane. this membrane has two layers: an outer layer of ectoderm and an inner layer of
endoderm→this membrane eventually ruptures and produces and opening from the pharynx
to the amniotic cavity
oropharyngeal membrane
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develop (during the 7th week) from solid cords growing from the oral cavity. Neural crest cells form the stroma
and the oral epithelium forms the parenchyma.
salivary glands
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results from persistence of the pharyngeal
grooves; branchial fistulas occur when the second arch fails to grow over the third and fourth
arches. Such a defect results in the formation of a...
branchial cyst/fistula
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normally pharyngeal cartilages disappear; remnants of cartilage or
bony elements under the skin anterior to the inferior 1/3 of the sternocleidomastoid persis
branchial vestiges
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nvolves abnormalities of the heart, parathyroid gland, face, and
thymus gland (the degree to which the immune system is affected varies). Affected
individuals will have congenital heart disease, unusual facial features with low-set ears, a
small receding mandible, wide-set eyes and are born without parathyroid glands
DiGeorge Anomaly
128
abnormal development of 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches
• characteristic features include microtia, mandibular hypoplasia, microstomia, skin tags
and vertebral anomalies
Goldehar syndrome
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most of the tongue muscles are derived from ___________ these are occompanied by this n
occipital somites; hypoglossal n
130
somatic sensation from the anterior 2/3 tongue from ...
CN V
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visceral sensation from the anterior 2/3 tongue is from...
CN VII
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_- provides sensory inervation to the posterior 1/3 tongue
CN IX
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__________- supplies the palatoglossus and carries taste from the root of the tongue
CN X
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abnormally short frenulum that anchors the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity
ankyloglossia
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paired and fuses with olfactory capsule, contributes to the
ethmoid bone
prechordial cartilage
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forms around the cranial end of the notochord and fuses with
cartilage from occipital somites→forms the base of occipital bone
parachordal cartilage
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forms around the developing pituitary gland (forms the body
of the sphenoid
hypopysial cartilage
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The development of the face begins in the 4th week around the ____________________ and relies
on organizing centers related to the forebrain
stomadeum
139
nasal cavity is not continuous with the pharynx, blocked by nasal
epithelium (persistent buccopharyngeal membrane?); part of the CHARGE association
choanal atresia
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Charge associatio

• C = coloboma of the iris, choroid
• H = heart defect
• A = atresia of choanae
• R = retarded growth
• G = genitourinary anomaly
• E = ear defect
141
type?
unilateral alveolar cleft
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type?
posterior cleft palate with cleft uvula
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these migrate into the skin and give rise to melanocyres
neural crest cells
144
the dermis is derived from...
mesoderm underlying the ectoderm
145
Beginning in the 6th week there are thickenings of the oral ectoderm (dental
lamina) from which tooth buds form and grow into the underlying mesenchyme. The
permanent teeth form from the deep parts of the tooth buds
bud stage
146
Mesenchyme grows into each bud and gives it a cap shaped appearance. The
ectodermal portion is called the enamel organ. There are two layers to the enamel organ:
and inner and an outer layer. They are continuous at the epithelial root sheath. The deepest
part of the enamel organ invaginates and in this space the mesenchyme forms the dental
papilla that will give rise to the dental pulp. This entire structure is surrounded by a layer of
mesenchyme (dental sac). The dental sac will form the periodontal ligament and cementum
(holds the tooth in the socket
cap stage
147
The developing tooth becomes bell-shaped. The mesenchyme of the dental
papilla forms odontoblasts (these cells produce predentin → dentin). The cells of the inner
enamel layer form ameloblasts that produce enamel. The root sheath regresses and become
associated with the root canal where it continues to form dentin. As a result the root canal is
reduced to a narrow cavity and the tooth has an outer, superficial covering of enamel and a
deeper layer of dentin. The enamel only covers the apex of the tooth
bell stage
148
This disorder results from excessive keratinization of the skin, whereby the skin
appears as very dry and scaly. A harlequin fetus has an extreme form of this disorder where
the skin is abnormally thick and cracked; they typically die within a week of birth. A collodion
infant is covered in a thick membrane that cracks and eventually is shed revealing normal
skin
ichthyosis
149
These anomalies are not true tumors but may appear as a mass within the skin.
They result from the persistence or surplus of blood or lymphatic vessels. Nevus flammeus
refers to a flat pink or red blotch that appears on the posterior aspect of the neck. A
hemangioma (port wine stain) also appears red but is found on the face
angiomas
150
excessive hairiness; localized hypertrichosis is associated with spinal
bifida occulta
hypertrichosis
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In this condition the enamel is improperly formed and is soft
and friable and the teeth are yellow or brown because of exposed dentin. Dentinogenesis
imperfecta is a common condition where the odontoblasts fail to differentiate and dentin is
not calcified.
amelogenesis imperfecta
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abnormal development of the parts of the inner or middle ear
congenital deafness
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
154
Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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this gives rise to the membranous labarynth of the inner ear
otic placode
157
cells from the otic placode and neural crest form the
vestibulocochlear ganglion
statoacostic ganglion
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the external and middle ear are formed by...
pharyngeal arch: external ear
1sy pharngeal pouch: eustacian tube and lines ear cavity
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the tympanic membrane is derived from...
endoderm (inside), ectoderm (outside), mesoderm
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bumps for cartilage and connective tissue; form certain parts of the ear
auricular hillpcks
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external ear defects are frequently occuring with _____________
chromosomal syndromes`
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most children with _______ have some degree of auditory dysfunction
autidm spectrum disorder
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
164
Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
165
a congenital condition where one or both ears are abnormally small or missing, sometimes with an absent ear canal (aural atresia)
microgria
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– incudostapedial deformity
– stapes fixation, hypoplasia or aplasia
klippel feil anomaly
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retina, posterior layers of iris and optic nerve tissue derivitive
neuroectoderm
168
lens and corneal epithelium tissue derivitive
surface ectoderm
169
fibrous and vascular coats tissue derivitive
mesoderm
170
choroid, sclera and corneal endothelium tissue derivitive
neural crest
171
the ends of the optic cup will form
retina
172
the outer layer of the optic cup becomes? and the inner layer becomes?
pigmented layer; neural retina
173
this space of the eye is associated with retinal detachment
intraretinal space
174
the cillary bpody is derived from the _ and ______
choroid mesenchyme and optic cup
175
the iris is formed at _____ and the gap becomes...
edge if oiptic cup; pupil
176
this supplies the developing lens and normally atrophies andthe lebs becomes avascular
hyaloid artery
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the cornea is derived from (x3)
1. Surface ectoderm
2. Mesoderm – CT
3. Neural crest – corneal endothelium
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misalignment of the eyes
strabismus
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what causes strabismus
improper development or innervation of extraocular muscles
180
a single eye
cyclopia
181
synophthalmia
incomplete fusion of the eyes
182
teardrop shaped pupils
coloboma
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micropthalmia
184
congenital horner syndrome
185
no iris
aniridiata
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no eyes
anophthalmia
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what causes congenital cataracts
ToRCH infections:
• Toxoplasmosis• other (syphilis, varicella, etc) • Rubella
• Cytomegalovirus• Herpes
188
The most common primary intraocular
malignancy in children (1:100,000)
• Derived from neural progenitors
(photoreceptor lineage) with mutation
in RB
• “white reflex”, poor eyesight,
strabismus, pain, glaucoma, retinal
mass on ophthalmic exam
retinoblastoma
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Indicated by an increase in intraocular pressure caused by a defect or blockage of the draining system (scleral venous sinus)
Causes: genetic mutations (NF1), rubella infection, other eye defects
congenital glaucoma
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c;left lip what failed to fuse
Maxillary – medial nasal
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median cleft lip what failed tp fuse
Medial nasal – medial nasal
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olique facial cleft what failed tp fuse
Lateral nasal – maxillary
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cleft palat ewhat failed to fuse
Palatine shelves (secondary palate)
194
macrostomia, what failed to fuse
Maxillary – mandibular (too little fusion)
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