Genetics and Embryo S1 U2

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1
Traits in which variation is thought to be caused by the combined effects of multiple genes
polygenic
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environmental factors are also believed to cause variation in the trait as well as the underlying genetics
multifactoral
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The loci underlying variation in a quantitative trait such as height
quantitative trait loci (QTL)
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For multifactorial diseases that are either present or absent, a ______________ must be crossed before the disease is expressed.
threshold of liability
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risks based on direct observation of data
empirical risks
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how do you estimate empirical risks, what is used most often for multifactoral diseases
To estimate empirical risks, a large series of families is examined in which one child (the proband) has developed the disease.
-The relatives of each proband are surveyed in order to calculate the percentage who have also developed the disease.
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multifactoral inheritence: the reccurent risk is (lower/higher) if more than one family member is affected
higher
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multifactoral inheritance: If the expression of the disease in the proband is more severe, the recurrence risk is (higher/lower)
higher
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multifactoral inheritance: The recurrence risk is _____ if the proband is of the less commonly affected sex
hugher
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multifactoral inheritance: If the prevalence of the disease in a population is f (which varies between zero and one), the risk for offspring and siblings of probands is approximately _______
square rt f
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originate when the developing embryo divides to form two separate but genetically identical embryos.
monozygotic twins
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the result of a double ovulation followed by the fertilization of each egg by a different sperm
dizygotic twins
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If both members of a twin pair share a trait (e.g., cleft lip), they are said to be....
concordant
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if both members of a twin pair dont share a trait they atre said to be
discordant
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the percentage of population variation in a trait that is due to genes (statistically, it is the proportion of the total variance of a trait that is caused by genes).
heritability
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If a sufficiently large ________ score (see Chapter 8) is obtained with a polymorphism, it is assumed that the region around this polymorphism might contain a disease-causing gene.
LOD
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multifactoral inheritance: Disease families are collected, a single-gene mode of inheritance is assumed, and linkage analysis is undertaken with a large series of marker polymorphisms that span the genome (this is termed a _____________)
genome scan
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DNA variants associated with variation in mRNA expression of a gene are termed
expression quantitative trait loci (eQTLs)
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heteroygosity mutation in the LDL receptor gene roughly doubles LDL cholesterol levels and is seen in approximately 1 in 500 persons. (This condition, known as.....
familial hypercholesterolemia
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fx of Apo B-100 (on LDL)
a component of LDL, and it acts as a recognition signal that allows LDL to be internalized into hepatocytes
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what does a mutation on the APOB gene cause
defective binding of APOb and LDL receptor, increased circulating LDL cholesterol levels to 50% to 100%
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describes the characteristically elongated QT interval in the electrocardiogram of affected individuals, indicative of delayed cardiac repolarization.
LQT syndrome
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what is the cause of long QT syndrome
onherited mutations or exposure to drugs that lock potassium chjannels
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autosomal dominant form of long QT sydrome that can be caused by a loss of function mutation in genes that encode potassium channels
Romano-Ward syndrome
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autosomal recessive forms of LQT syndrome that are less cpommon and associated with longer QT interval and hjigher incidence of suffen cardiac death and sensorineural deafness (x2)
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
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what is the mutation in Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
mutations in KCNQ1 or KCNE1
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distinctive cholesterol deposits seen oin the skin of people with familial hypercholesterolemia
xanthomas
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what are class 1 LDLR mutations
result in no detectable protein product.
-Thus heterozygotes would produce only half the normal number of LDL receptors.
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what are class II LDLR mytations
production of the LDL receptor, but it is altered to the extent that it cannot leave the endoplasmic reticulum. It is eventually degraded.
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what are class III LDLr mutations?
produce an LDL receptor that is capable of migrating to the cell surface but is incapable of normal binding to LDL.
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what is a class IV LDLR mutation
produce receptors that are normal except that they do not migrate specifically to coated pits and thus cannot carry LDL into the cell.
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what are class V LDLR mutations
LDL receptor that cannot disassociate from the LDL particle after entry into the cell. The receptor cannot return to the cell surface and is degraded.
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familial hypercholesterolemia LDLR mutation causes
elevated LDL level
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familial hypercholesterolemia mutation apolipoprotein B results in
elevated LDl level
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Gain-of-function mutations elevate LDL; loss-of-function mutations reduce LDL
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Tangier disease: ATP binding cassette 1 (ABC1) mutation causes
reduced HDL levels
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familial dialated cardiomyopathy: TNNT2 mutation causes
reduced force generaton by sarcomere
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familial dialated cardiomyopathy titin (TTN) mutation causes
destabilized sacromere
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familial dialated cardiomyopathy: MYH7 mutation causes
reduced force generation by sarcomere
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familial dialated cardiomyopathy: SGCB mutation causes
destabiliazed sarcolemma and signal transduction
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familial dialated cardiomyopathy: SGCD myutation causes
destabilized sarcolemma signal transduction
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familial dialated cardiomyopathy: dystrophin mutation causes
destabilized sarcolemma in cardiac myocytes
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familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: MYH7 mutation causes
reduced force generated by sarcomere
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familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy TNNT2 mutation causes r
reduced force generation by sarcomere
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long qt syndrome LQT1 and KCNQ1 mutations cause
prolongued qt interval om elevtrocardiogram arrhythmia
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long qt syndrome LQT2 and KCNH2 mutation cause
prolongued QT interval on electrocardiogram arrthymia
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long qt syndrome LQT3 and SCN5A mutation cause
prolongued QT interval on electrocardiogram arrhythmia
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long QT syndrome: Ankyrin B anchoring protein (LQT4, ANK2) mutations cause
Prolonged QT interval on electrocardiogram, arrhythmia
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long qt syndrome: Cardiac potassium channel β subunit (LQT5, KCNE1) and Cardiac potassium channel subunit (LQT6, KCNE2) cause
Prolonged QT interval on electrocardiogram, arrhythmia
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liddle syndrome: Renal epithelial sodium channel subunits (SCNN1B, SCNN1G) mutation causes
Severe hypertension, low renin and suppressed aldosterone
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gordon syndrome: WNK1 or WNK4 kinase genes mutations cause
High serum potassium level and increased renal salt reabsorption
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Glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism: Fusion of genes that encode aldosterone synthase and steroid 11β-hydroxylase mutation causes
Early-onset hypertension with suppressed plasma renin and normal or elevated aldosterone levels
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Syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess: 11 β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (11β-HSD2) mutation causes
Early-onset hypertension, low potassium and renin levels, low aldosterone
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diabetes MODY1: Hepatocyte nuclear factor-4α (HNF4A) mutation causes
Decreased insulin secretion
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diabetes MODY2: GCK mutation leads to
Impaired glucose metabolism, leading to mild nonprogressive hyperglycemia
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diabetes MODY3 Hepatocyte nuclear factor-1α (HNF1α) mutation cayuses
Decreased insulin secretion
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diabetes MODY4: nsulin promoter factor-1 (IPF1) mutation causes
factor-1 (IPF1) Decreased transcription of insulin gene
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diabetes MODY 5: Hepatocyte nuclear factor-1β (HNF1β) mutation
β-cell dysfunction leads to decreased insulin secretion
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Germline mutations in the ____(x2) genes can cause Li–Fraumeni syndrome, which also predisposes to breast cancer.
TP53 and CHK2
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Cowden disease, a rare autosomal dominant condition that includes multiple hamartomas and breast cancer, is caused by mutations in the
PTEN tumor supresor gene
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familial colorectal cancer can be the result of mutations in the ______- tumor suppressor gene or in one of several DNA mismatch-repair genes (Lynch syndrome).
APC
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characterized by T-cell infiltration of the pancreas and destruction of the insulin-producing beta cells, usually manifests before 40 years of age
type 1 diaetes
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type 1 diabetes: estimated that the HLA loci account for about 40% to 50% of the genetic susceptibility to type 1 diabetes. 95% of people have one of these alleles
HLA DR3 or 4
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where is the insulin gene located
short arm chromosome 11
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most significant gene identiied to contribute to type II diabetes risj
TCF7L2
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which accounts for 1% to 5% of all diabetes cases, typically occurs before 25 years of age and follows an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance. In contrast to type 2 diabetes, it is not associated with obesity.
MODY
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alcoholism characterized by a later age of onset (after 25 years of age), occurrence in both males and females, and greater psychological dependency on alcohol.
-more likely to be introverted, solitary drinkers. This form of alcoholism is less likely to cluster in families (
type I alcoholics
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seen predominantly in males, typically occurs before 25 years of age, and tends to involve persons who are extroverted and thrill-seeking.
-clusters more strongly in families
type II alcoholiucs
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this allele makes alcohol unplesant
ALDH2*2
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refers to earlier age-of-onset of some genetic diseases in more recent generations of families.
anticipation
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refers to the fact that some genes are expressed only on paternally transmitted chromosomes and others are expressed only on maternally transmitted chromosomes
imprinting
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states that one X chromosome in each cell is randomly inactivated early in the embryonic development of females. This ensures that females, who have two copies of the X chromosome, will produce X-linked gene products in quantities roughly similar to those produced in males (dosage compensation).
lyon hypothesis
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what eidence supports the lyon hypothesis?
cytogenetic evidence: Barr bodies, which are inactive X chromosomes, are seen only in cells with two or more X chromosomes. It is also supported by biochemical and animal studies that reveal mosaicism of X-linked traits in female heterozygotes.
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what region is inactivation initiated in X chromosomes
1-MB region on the X cromosome long arm (X inactivation center)
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this gene is located in the X inactivaton center and required for x inactivation
-encodes a lncRNA product that coats the inactive X chromosome.
XIST
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Hemophillia A is caused by mutations in the gene that encode _________
clotting factor VIII
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Fibrin formation is affected, resulting in prolonged and often severe bleeding from wounds and hemorrhages in the joints and muscles (Fig. 5.3). Bruising is often seen. Hemarthroses (bleeding into the joints) are common in the ankles, knees, hips, and elbows.
hemophillia A
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how do you treat hemophillia A
administer factor VIII at first ign of bleeding episode
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these mutations usually lead to severe heophillia A
frameshift r nonsense
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these mutations usually lead to less severe hemophilia A
missense
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where do many hemophilia A mutations take place?
methylated CG sequences
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what is hemophilia B a deficiency inc
clotting factor IX
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defined as a progressive weakness and loss of muscle, exists in dozens of different forms.
muscular dystophy
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parents begin to notice unusual clumsiness and muscle weakness. Pseudohypertrophy of the calves, the result of infiltration of muscle by fat and connective tissue, is often seen early in the course of the disease. All skeletal muscle degenerates eventually, and most patients with DMD are confined to a wheelchair by 11 years of age. The heart and respiratory musculature become impaired, and death usually results from respiratory or cardiac failure.
duchene muscular dystrophy
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when muscle cells die in muscular dystrophy, this leaks into the blood stream, leading to levels evelated at least 20 times above the upper limot of the normal range
Creatine kinase (CK)
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gene covers approximately 2.4 Mb of DNA, making it the largest gene known in the human. It contains 79 exons that produce a 14-kb mRNA transcript.
DMD gene
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what does the amino terminus of the Dystrophin bind to
F actin
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what does the carboxyl terminus of dystrophin bind to
ystroglycan–sarcoglycan complex, which spans the cell membrane and binds to extracellular proteins.
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dystrophin fx
plays a key role in maintaining the structural integrity of the muscle cell.
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Although dystrophin is __________ in almost all DMD patients, it is usually present in reduced quantity (or as a shortened form of the protein) in ________ patients.
absent; BMD
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unable to perceive one of the primary colors, usually red or green.
dichromatic
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inability to perceive green
deuteranopia
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inability to perceive red
protanopia
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abilkity to perceive only one color
monocromacy
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an autosomal recessive condition in which all visual function is carried out by rod cells.
rod monochromacy
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an X-linked recessive condition in which both the red and green cone cells are absent.
blue cone monochromacy
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where is the human rhodopsin gene?
chromosome 3
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where is the human gene for blue sensitive opsin
chrosmsone 7
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where are the genes for red and green opsins
x chromsome
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what gene is responsible for juvenile retinoschisis
x linked RS1
-recessive
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Progressive visual impairment caused by splitting of the nerve fiber layer of the retina; begins in the first or second decade of life; impairment typically 20/60 to 20/120
juvenile retinoschisis
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Madelung deformity of the radius and ulna; mesomelia (shortening of the forearms and lower legs); short stature
Leri–Weill dyschondrosteosis
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genetic defect Leri–Weill dyschondrosteosis
recessive x linked
SHOX
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Mental retardation; genital anomalies; and α-thalassemia without abnormalities of the α-globin gene complex
ATR-X
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Diminished sweating and heat intolerance; sparse and light-colored hair, eyelashes, and eyebrows; abnormal and/or missing teeth; recurrent upper airway infections
Hypohidrotic ectodermal hypoplasia
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Hypohidrotic ectodermal hypoplasia genetics
recessive x linked
gene: EDA
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vitamin de resistant rickets genetics
recessive x linked
gene: PHEX
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Hypophosphatemia due to reduced renal phosphate reabsorption; short stature; bowed legs; poor teeth formation
vitamin d resistant rickets
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Aarskog–Scott syndrome (faciogenital dysplasia) GENETICS
recessive x linked
Gene: FGD1
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Short stature; hypertelorism; genital anomalies
Aarskog–Scott syndrome (faciogenital dysplasia)
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Cleft palate with or without ankyloglossia (tongue tie)
Cleft palate with ankyloglossia
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genetics Cleft palate with ankyloglossia
recessive x linked
gene: TBX22
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Defect of myelination; typically manifests in infancy or early childhood; characterized by nystagmus, hypotonia, spasticity, early death
Pelizaeus–Merzbacher disease
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genetics Pelizaeus–Merzbacher disease
recesssive x linked
Gene: PLP1
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Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus genetics
recessive x linked
gene: AVPR2
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Impaired response to antidiuretic hormone that leads to inability to concentrate urine, polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyuria (excessive urine production)
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
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Skeletal dysplasia ranging from mild to lethal; males more severely affected than females
Otopalatodigital spectrum disorders
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genetics Otopalatodigital spectrum disorders
RECESSIVE X LINKED
GENE: FLNA
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an individual who is heterozygous for a genetic trait but displays physical symptoms of the condition, which is usually recessive
manifesting heterozygote
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About 95% of classic Rett syndrome cases are caused by mutations in the _____ gene, and most of these mutations are de novo events that occur in the paternal germline
MECP2
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Organ systems with large ATP requirements and high thresholds tend to be the ones most seriously affected by ________ diseases
mitocondria
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characterized by rapid loss of vision in the central visual field as a result of optic nerve death. Vision loss typically begins in the third decade of life and is usually irreversible.
leber hereditary optic neuropathy
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what causes ;leber hereditary optic neuropathy
missense mutation in protein coding mtDNA
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a disorder characterized by epilepsy, dementia, ataxia (uncoordinated muscle movement), and myopathy (muscle disease).
myclonic epilepsyu with ragged red fiber syndrome (MERRF)
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What mutation causes merrf
single base mutations in trna
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what causes angleman and prader willi
mb deletion of the long arm of chrpmosome 15
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when you inherate a chjromosome 15 mb de;letion frpm dad
prader willi
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when you inheroit a chromosome 15 mb deletion frpm mom
angleman syndrome
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which an individual inherits two copies of a chromosome from one parent and none from the other
unpaired disomy
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When two copies of the maternal chromosome 15 are inherited, ______ rresults because no active paternal genes are present in the critical region.
PWS
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In ______, the gene that encodes insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) is normally inactive on the maternally transmitted chromosome and active on the paternally transmitted chromosome.
DMR1
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Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome is caused by...
loss of methylation or other alterations of DMR2.
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a clinically heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by growth retardation, proportionate short stature, leg length discrepancy, and a small, triangular-shaped face.
silver russel syndrome
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what cxauses silver russel syndrome
loss of methylation of DMR1 on chromosome 11p15.5, leading to down-regulation of IGF2 and diminished growth.
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when are large expansion repeats most likely to be transmitted?
by females to their offspring
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large-scale testing of populations for disease in an effort to identify persons who probably have the disease and those who probably do not.
population screening
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population screening for genetic variants that can cause the disease in the person carrying the variant or in the descendants of the carrier.
genetic screening
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reflects the ability of the test to correctly identify those with the disease.
sensitivity
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the ability of the test to correctly 251identify those without the disease.
specificity
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what pop is Tay sachs most common in
ashkenazi jewish pop
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what pop is sickle cell doisease most common in
african american pop
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what pop is cystic fibrosis most common in
european and ashkenazi jews
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when sensitivity is increased, specifocoty (increase/decreased)
decreased
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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Image occlusion: name the hidden labels
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For a given level of sensitivity and specificity, the positive predictive value of a test increases as the prevalence of the disease (incrases/decreases)
increases
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an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder in which the lysosomal enzyme β-hexosaminidase A (HEX A) is deficient (see Chapter 7), causing a buildup of the substrate, GM2 ganglioside, in neuronal lysosomes.
tay sachs disease
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screening test fore pku
tandem mas specxtrometry
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pku treatment
dietary restriction of phenylalanine
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galactosemia screening test
transferase assay
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galacrosemia tratment
disetary restriction if galactose
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sickle cell anemia screening test
isoelectric focusing on DNA diagnosis
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sickle cell anemia treatment
prophylactic penicillin
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cystic fibrsis screening test
immunoreactive trypsinogen confirmed by dna dagnosis
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what is the most common mutation to cause CF
F508del
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DNA polymorphisms such as single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) or short tandem repeats (STRs) can be used as markers in
linkage analysis
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which the disease-causing mutation itself is detected, has become the approach used most commonly in genetic diagnosis.
doirect diagnosis
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used to detect deletions or duplications of chromosome regions
fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or array comparative genomic hybridization (array CGH
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can be used to detect copy number variants or large repeat expansions
Southern blotting or multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA)
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genetic testing that equires that the disease-causing gene has been identified and sequenced. In addition, each disease-causing mutation requires a different oligonucleotide probe.
ASO probe testing
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large numbers of oligonucleotide probes on a silicon chip are hybridized with labeled patient DNA
microarrays
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It carries out its binding and inhibitory role primarily in the lower respiratory tract, where it prevents neutrophil elastase from digesting the alveolar septa of the lung.
AAT
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DNA mutation in AAT deficiency
more than 120 identified
SERPINA1 missense variant
166
when is amniocentesis performed
15-17wks
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performed by aspirating fetal trophoblastic tissue (chorionic villi) by either a transcervical or transabdominal approach
chorionic villus sampling
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when is chorionic villus sampling perfpormed
10-11wks
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(mosaicism in the placenta but not in the fetus itself)
confined placental mosaicism
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measuruable enzyme maple syreup urine disease
branched chain ketoacid decarboxylase
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measurable enzyme methylmalonic acoidemia
Methylmalonic coenzyme A mutase
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measureable enzyme in multiple carboxylase deficiencies
biotin responsive carboxylase
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measurable enzyme in glycogen storage disease type 2
a-glycosidase
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measurable enztme in galactosemia
galactose-1-uridyltransferase
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measureable enzymes in gangliosidosis disorders
B-galactosidases
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measurable enzyme in lesch-nyhan syndrome
hypoxanthine guanine phosphribosyl transferase
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when does the respiratory diverticulu appear in development
4wks old embryo
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what determines the location and appearance of lung bud
retinoic acid (RA)
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an increase in retinoic acid upregulates this TF
TBX4
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what does TBX4 do?
indices formation of the bud and continued grpowth and differentiation of the lungs
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this seperates the respiratory diverticukum from the foregut
tracheoesophageal ridges
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Abnormalities in partitioning of the esophagus and trachea by the tracheoesophageal septum result in
esophageal atresia
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VACTERL association
Vertebral anomalies, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheoesophageal fistula, Esophageal atresia, Renal anomalies, and Limb defects
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origin intrenal lining of larynx
endoderm
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origin cartilage and muscles of larynx
4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
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innervates the derrivitives of the 4th pharyngeal arch
superior laryngeal n
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innervates the derivities of the 6th pharygeal arch
reccurent laryngeal n
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what forms from the lung buds? (x3)
trachea, primary bronchial buds (x2)
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Branching has continued to form terminal bronchioles. No respiratory bronchioles or alveoli are present.
pseudoglandular period
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Each terminal bronchiole divides into two or more respiratory bronchioles, which in turn divide into three to six alveolar ducts.
canalicular period
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Terminal sacs (primitive alveoli) form, and capillaries establish close contact.
terminal sac period
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Mature alveoli have well-developed epithelial–endothelial (capillary) contacts.
alveolar period
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begin before birth and cause aspiration of amniotic fluid. These movements are important for stimulating lung development and conditioning respiratory muscles.
fetal breathing movements
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When surfactant is insufficient, the air–water (blood) surface membrane tension becomes high, causing great risk that alveoli will collapse during expiration. As a result, the infant develops
respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
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what causes ectopic lung lobes
additional respiratory buds of the foregut that develop independent og the main respiratory system
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what causes congenital cysts of the lung
dialatrion of terminal or larger bronchi
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