eliza quiz

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1
What is the goal of Sanger sequencing?
Determine the nucleotide sequence of a DNA strand.
2
How do ddNTPs differ from dNTPs?
ddNTPs lack a 3′-OH; dNTPs have one.
3
Why do ddNTPs stop DNA synthesis?
Without a 3′-OH, another nucleotide cannot be added.
4
Why are both dNTPs and ddNTPs needed?
dNTPs extend DNA; ddNTPs terminate strands at specific bases.
5
Why does Sanger sequencing use one primer?
To produce fragments extending from one defined starting point in one direction.
6
Why does PCR use two primers?
To amplify DNA between two defined sites on opposite strands.
7
How are ddNTPs detected in modern Sanger sequencing?
Each ddNTP type has a distinct fluorescent label.
8
What is a chromatogram?
A graph of fluorescent peaks representing DNA bases in sequence order.
9
What does each chromatogram peak represent?
A detected DNA fragment ending in a labeled nucleotide.
10
How is a Sanger chromatogram generated?
Fragments are separated by capillary electrophoresis; fluorescence identifies terminal bases.
11
Why do shorter Sanger fragments appear first?
They travel through the capillary faster than longer fragments.
12
How is the DNA sequence read from a chromatogram?
Read peaks from left to right, identifying each base by its color.
13
What does a clean, single chromatogram peak suggest?
One predominant base was detected at that position.
14
What is BLAST used for?
Find similar DNA or protein sequences in a database.
15
What does BLAST stand for?
Basic Local Alignment Search Tool.
16
How does BLAST identify sequence matches?
It finds local similarities between a query and database sequences.
17
What is the query sequence in BLAST?
The DNA or protein sequence submitted for comparison.
18
What does a high BLAST alignment score suggest?
A stronger sequence alignment under the scoring system.
19
What does a low BLAST E-value indicate?
The match is less likely to occur by chance.
20
What does 100% sequence identity mean?
All aligned positions match; it does not prove the organisms are identical.
21
What is an antibody?
A protein that specifically binds an antigen.
22
What is the basic structure of an antibody?
A Y-shaped protein with two heavy and two light chains.
23
What do antibody variable regions do?
Bind specific epitopes on an antigen.
24
What do antibody constant regions do?
Provide structural features and interact with other immune components.
25
What is an antigen?
A substance specifically recognized by an antibody or immune receptor.
26
What is an epitope?
The specific part of an antigen recognized by an antibody.
27
Which cells produce antibodies?
Plasma cells, which develop from activated B lymphocytes.
28
What does ELISA stand for?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
29
What is the purpose of an ELISA?
Detect or measure a target antigen or antibody using enzyme-linked detection.
30
What is the key feature of direct ELISA?
An enzyme-linked primary antibody binds directly to the target antigen.
31
What is the key feature of indirect ELISA?
An unlabeled primary antibody binds the target; an enzyme-linked secondary antibody detects it.
32
What is the key feature of sandwich ELISA?
A capture antibody binds the antigen, which is detected by another antibody.
33
What is the role of the capture antibody in sandwich ELISA?
Immobilize the target antigen in the well.
34
What is the role of an enzyme-linked antibody in ELISA?
Generate a detectable signal through an enzyme-substrate reaction.
35
What does a color change in ELISA indicate?
Enzyme activity; under suitable conditions, stronger color indicates more target.
36
Why are wash steps important in ELISA?
Remove unbound material to reduce background signal.
37
What is the purpose of the indirect ELISA antigen-coating step?
Attach antigen to the well surface.
38
What is the purpose of the blocking step in indirect ELISA?
Cover unoccupied well surfaces to
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