Exam 1

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1
What features of drugs allow them to easily pass the phospholipid bilayer?
Small, Lipid Soluble, Non-Ionized
2
Drugs are present in the blood in what two forms?
Bound and Free
3
Where are bound drugs located in the blood?
Bound to plasma proteins (albumin, globulin)
4
Where are free drugs located in the blood?
Free in the Plasma
5
What does a bound drug do?
Acts as a storage site
6
What does the free drug do?
Produces the pharmacologic effect
7
Which portion of the drug is metabolized more quickly and clears the circulation faster?
Unbound
8
Which drugs have longer half-lives?
High Protein Bound Drugs
9
What happens when 2 drugs that are protein-bound are taken?
One drug displaces the other, increasing the concentration of one of the drugs
10
What is first pass metabolism?
The fraction of drug lost during absorption
11
What forms of drugs are most susceptible to first pass?
Oral Forms
12
What happens to P-450 enzymes in the liver after the use of some drugs such as tobacco and alcohol?
They Increase
13
What happens when there is an increase in the P-450 enzyme level?
Drug is metabolized more quickly and tolerance increases
14
What happens when there is a decrease in the P-450 enzymes?
The drug is metabolized more slowly and tolerance decreases
15
How does liver disease impact metabolism?
Decreases the 1st pass effect, increases the concentration in blood, and increases toxicity
16
What is the primary organ involved in excretion?
Kidneys
17
What is the drug half-life?
The amount of time it takes for the concentration of a drug to fall to one-half of its blood level at any time
18
How do you calculate half-life?
Divide the drug in half for each half-life
19
What is first order kinetics?
A constant percentage/fraction of a drug is eliminated from the body per each unit of time
20
What is zero order kinetics?
A constant amount (not a fraction) of the drug is elimited per unit of time
21
Which order kinetics do most drugs follow?
First Order Kinetics
22
What happens during zero order kinetics when the dose is increased?
Drug effects are prolonged, metabolism is not increased
23
Are Zero or First order drugs more likely to go toxic?
Zero Order Drugs
24
What route of administration is placed directly into the gastrointestinal tract?
Enteral
25
What is the most common, convenient, and least predictable route of administration?
Oral
26
What are the types of enteral administration routes?
Oral and Rectal
27
Which type of admission route has irregularnpredictable absorption?
Rectal
28
What route of administration bypasses the gastrointestinal tract?
Parenteral
29
What are the types of parenteral administration?
Intravenous, Intramuscular, Subcutaneous, and Intradermal
30
What route of administration has the most rapid drug response?
Intravenous
31
What route of administration is the drug irretrievable once administered?
Intravenous
32
What makes intravenous administration the fastest?
Skips absorption phase
33
Which route of administration uses a gaseous, liquid or powdered form of drugs?
Inhalation
34
Which route of administration is administered to the skin, oral mucosa, or sublingually?
Topical
35
Which route of administration sensitizes patients to allergy more than systemic routes?
Topical
36
What route of administration rarely produces systemic adverse effects?
Topical
37
What is the dose needed to produce the desired therapeutic effect called?
Potency
38
What is the magnitute of response obtained from optimal receptor site occupancy by a drug called?
Efficacy
39
What is potency related to?
Affinity of the drug to its receptor
40
Why is toxicity related to potency?
More potent drugs reach toxic levels at lower doses
41
What is efficacy related to?
Intrinsic activity of the drug once a receptor complex is formed
42
How does efficacy relate to therapeutic effect?
The drug with higher efficacy will have a better therapeutic effect
43
Which name of a drug is determined by the chemical structure of the drug?
Chemical Name
44
Which name of a drug is the official name that appears on all prescription labels?
Generic Name
45
How many generic names does each drug have?
1
46
Is the generic name capitalized?
No
47
Which name of a drug is registered property of the manufacturing company and is protected for 20 years under the federal patent law?
Trade (Brand) Name
48
Is a trade name capitalized?
Yes
49
How many trade names can a drug have?
Several
50
What are the requirements for writing prescriptions called?
Drug Scheduling
51
Which schedule drugs have the highest abuse potential?
Schedule I
52
Which schedule drugs have the lowest abuse potential?
Schedule V
53
Which schedule drugs are not accepted for medical use?
Schedule I
54
Which schedule drugs require a written prescription with a provider's signature and do not allow for refills?
II
55
Which schedule drugs may be prescribed by telephone, but no more than 5 prescriptions in 6 months are allowed?
Schedule III & IV
56
Which schedule drugs can be bought over the counter?
Schedule V
57
How many milligrams are in a gram?
1000 mg
58
What is bid?
2x per day
59
What is tid?
3x daily
60
What is po?
By Mouth (per oral)
61
What is prn?
As Needed
62
What is qid?
4x per day
63
What are the classifications of adverse reactions?
Side Effect, Toxic Reaction, Allergic Reaction
64
Which classification of adverse reactions is predictable, dose-related, and acts on nontarget organs?
Side Effects
65
What classification of adverse reactions are predictable, dose-related, and acts on target organs?
Toxic Reaction
66
Which classification of adverse affects are not predictable or dose related?
Allergic reaction
67
What is a genetically related abnormal drug response called?
Idiosyncratic
68
What is the reduced ability to fight infections as a result of a drug called?
Interference with Natural Defense Mechanisms
69
What is ED?
Median Effective Dose: produces a specific effect in 50% of test subjects
70
What is LD?
Median Lethal Dose: results in death of 50% of test subjects
71
What is TD?
Toxic Dose: Results in Toxicity for 50% of test subjects
72
What is TI?
Therapeutic Index: ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose
73
How do you calculate TI?
LD/ED
74
What is the principle neurotransmitter of the SANS?
Norepinephrine
75
What is the principle neurotransmitter of the PANS?
Acetylcholine
76
Which nervous system is the rest and digest system?
Parasympathetic
77
Which nervous system is the fight or flight system?
Sympathetic
78
What is the effect of the PNS on the pupils?
Constrict Pupils
79
What is the effect of the PNS on saliva production?
Stimulates Salivia Production
80
What is the effect of the PNS on the heart?
Slows HR
81
What is the effect of the PNS on the airways?
Constricts Airways
82
What is the effect of the PNS system on the stomach?
Stimulates Activity of the Stomach
83
What is the effect of the PNS on the pancreas and gallbladder?
Inhibits release of glucose and stimulates the gallbladder
84
What is the effect of the PNS on the intestines?
Stimulates Intestinal Activity
85
What is the effect of the SNS on the pupils?
Dilates Pupils
86
What is the effect of the SNS on salivia production?
Inhibits Salivia Production
87
What is the effect of the SNS on the heart?
Increases HR
88
What is the effect of the SNS on the airways?
Relaxes Airways
89
What is the effect of the SNS on the stomach?
Inhibits activity of the Stomach
90
What is the effect of the SNS on the pancreas and gallbladder?
Stimulates the release of glucose and inhibits the gallbladder
91
What is the effect of the SNS on the intestines?
Inhibit Intestinal Activity
92
Which nervous system releases epinephrine and norepinephrine?
SNS
93
What are the effects of the SNS on the bladder?
Relaxes the Bladder
94
Which nervous system promotes ejaculation and vaginal contraction?
SNS
95
What is the effect of the PNS on the bladder?
Contracts Bladder
96
Which nervous system promotes erection of genitals?
PNS
97
What does P+ stand for?
Stimulation of PANS
98
What does P- stand for?
Inhibition of PANS
99
What does S+ stand for?
Stimulation of SANS
100
What does S- stand for?
Inhibition of SANS
101
What type of drugs stimulate the PANS?
Cholinergic and Parasympathomimetics
102
What type of drugs inhibit the PANS?
Anticholinergics, Parasympatholytics, and Cholinergic Blockers
103
What type of drugs stimulate the SANS?
Sympathomimetics and Adrenergics
104
What type of drugs inhibit the SANS?
Adrenergic Blockers, Sympathetic Blockers, and Sympatholytics
105
What does an agonist do?
Increases Function
106
What does an antagonist do?
Decreasees Function
107
What are drugs that act on the location where acytylcholine is the neurotransmitter released?
Cholinergic
108
What are the drugs that act on the location where norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released?
Adrenergic
109
What prefix is attached to drugs that act on locations where PANS acts?
Parasympatho-
110
What prefix is attached to drugs that act on locations where SANS acts?
Sympatho-
111
What suffix is attached to drugs that act on the location where a division of the ANS acts and produces the same effect as the neurotransmitter?
-mimetic
112
What suffix is attached to drugs that act on the location where a division of the ANS acts and blocks the action of the neurotransmitter?
-lytic or -blocker
113
What type of drug is a sympathomimetic drug?
Adrenergic Agonist
114
What effects does a sympathomimetic drug have?
Increases Sypathetic Effects
115
What type of drug is a Sympatholytic drug?
Adrenergic Antagonist
116
What effects do sympatholytic drugs have?
Decrease sympathatic effects
117
What does SLUD stand for?
Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defecation
118
What type of drug has the SLUD effect?
Cholinergics
119
What effects are produced by cholinergic drugs?
Salivaiton, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation
120
What happens in case of an overdose on cholinergic drugs?
Neuromuscular Paralysis and Confusion
121
How are overdoses on cholinergic drugs treated?
Pralidoxime: Regenerates irreversibly bound ACh receptor sites that are bound by the inhibitors
Atropine: Competitively Blocks muscarinic effects of excess ACh
122
What are the cardiovascular effects of cholinergic agents?
Lowers HR, Lessens Contractions, Lowers Output
123
What does chronotropic mean?
Lowers Heartrate
124
What does inotropic mean?
Decreases Strength of Heart Contractions
125
What are the effects of cholinergic agents on the GI?
Increases Activity, Increases Secretion, Increases Motility
126
What are the effects of cholinergic agents on salivation?
Increases Saliviation
127
What are the effects of cholinergic agents on the eyes?
Pupil Constriction
128
What is the word that means pupil constriciton?
Miosis
129
What do direct-acting parasympathomimetic drugs do?
Act directly on the receptor
130
What do indirect-acting parasympathomimetic drugs do?
Inhibit Cholinesterase
131
What does cholinesterase do?
Breaks doesn Ach
132
What type of drug is a cholinesterase inhibitor?
Parasympathomimetic
133
What is pilocarpine used for?
Oral Administration treats xerostomia, Topical Application Constricts Pupils, Also used to reduce side effects of morphine (dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention)
134
What are the effects of sypathetic drugs?
Vasoconstriction, Cardiac Effects, Produces Bronchodilation
135
What are the uses of vasoconstriction effects of sympathetic drugs?
Local Anesthetic, Hemostasis, and Nasal Decongestion
136
What are the uses of cardiac effecs of sympathetic drugs?
Tx of Shock, Cardiac Arrest, and Anaphylaxis
137
What are the uses of the bronchodilation effects of sympathetic drugs?
Treats Emphysema or Asthma
138
What is the agonist response from Alpha-1 SANS Receptors?
Vasoconstriction, Inhibition of the GI tract, and Mydriasis (pupil dilation)
139
What organ(s) do Beta-1 SANS receptor affect?
Heart
140
What is the agonist response from Beta-1 SANS receptors?
Increased Force of Contraction and Increased HR
141
What organ(s) is affected by Beta-2 SANS receptors?
Lungs and Coronary Blood Vessels
142
What is the agonist response of Beta-2 SANS receptors?
Bronchodilation and Vasodilation
143
What are the effects of stimulating the alpha-1 receptor?
Vasoconstriction of Vessels in the periphery and kidnes, Mydriasis, Uterine Contraction, and Inhibition of GI Tract
144
What are the effects of blocking the alpha-1 receptor?
Vasoconstriction of vessels in the periphery and kidneys is prevented and pupil dilation is prevented
145
What happens when alpha-2 receptors are stimulated?
Acetylcholine and Norephinephrine is inhibited
146
What happens when alpha-2 receptors are blocked?
Suppresses the modulatory effects on the SANS, prolonging sympathetic activity
147
What happens when Beta-1 receptors are stimulated?
HR, Force of Contraction, and Conduction Velocity Increase
148
What happens when beta-1 receptors are blcoked?
HR, Contractile Force, and Conduction Velocity Decrease
149
When happens when beta-2 receptors are stimulated?
Bronchodilation
150
What happens when beta-2 receptors are blocked?
Decreased bronchodilation
151
What are the cardiovasucal effects of adrenergic drugs?
Force and Strength of Contraction, Blood Pressure, and HR Increase
152
What are the effects of adrenergic drugs on the lungs?
Bronchodilation
153
What type of drug is an adrenergic or sympathomimetic drug?
Albuterol
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