Exam 2

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1
What happens to systolic BP with age?
Rises throughout life
2
What happens to diastolic BP with age?
Rises until age 50 then levels off or falls
3
What is the most prevalent form of HTN?
Isolated Systolic Hypertension
4
When is diastolic BP important in DX of HTN?
Prior to age 50
5
What when is systolic BP more important?
After age 50
6
What are the qualifications of isolated systolic hypertension?
Systolic less than or equal to 140/Diastolic<90
7
What are the qualifications of isolated diastolic hypertension?
Systolic<140/Diastolic greater than or equal to 90
8
Is Isolated diastolic or systolic hypertension more common?
Isolated Diastolic Hypertension
9
What type of hypertenstion is found in younger adults?
Isolated diastolic hypertension
10
What considerations should be made during dental treatment for patients with hypertension?
Avoid long appointments, morning appointments are better, reduce anxiety, anxiolitic or nitrous may be indicated, avoid sudden changes in chair position, use the cardiac dose of anesthetic containing epinephrine
11
What is the cardiac dose of local anesthetic?
0.04mg of epinephrine
12
How much epinephrine is in 1.8ml of a cartridge of anesthetic containing 1:100,000 epinephrine?
0.018
13
Approximately how many cartridges are in the cardiac dose?
2
14
What is atherosclerosis?
Thickening of the inside of arterial walls
15
What causes atherosclerosis?
Accumulation of lipid plaques
16
How do atheromas form?
Injury to arterial intima (disturbed blood flow @ bending points or bifurcations), Atheroma formation (LDLs enter injured area, form extracellular pools of lipids, macrophages engulf lipids and form foam cells), Inflammatory process prompts migration of smooth muscle cells, fibrous cap is formed and may rupture
17
What are the symptoms of stable angina?
often propted by physical effort, predictable, reproducible, consistent over time
18
What are the symptoms of unstable angina?
New onset of pain, or change in pain duration, intensity, frequency, or onset factors
19
What type of angina is relieved by nitroglycerine?
Stable Angina
20
How long does stable angina last?
5-15 minutes
21
How long does unstable angina last?
>15 minutes
22
What do nitrates do?
Decrease cardiac load and decrease oxygen demand by dilating venous & arterial systems
23
What BP levels must be present in order for nitros to be administered?
Systolic is >100 mmHg
24
How many doses of nitroglycerine may be administered?
3
25
How long should one wait in between doses of nitroglycerine?
3-5 minutes
26
What is aspirin used for?
Antiplatelet therapy for angina
27
What aspirin dosage is recommended for pts with acute and chronic ischemic heart disease?
75-325 mg/day
28
Why should you always ask about aspirin use?
Many pts do not report on MHX and will self-medicate
29
What are the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction?
Angina is brief, associated with elevated BP, and can be relieved with Nitroglycerine, Myocardial infarctions are long, BP is decreased or normal, and nitroglycerine does NOT relieve pain
30
What are the protocols for a myocardial infarction?
Stop Tx, Call EMS, Place pt in comfy position, administer O2, administer nitroglycerine (if systolic >100), administer 325 mg aspirin (have pt chew it)
31
What should be presumed when a patient experiences chest pain for the first time?
Myocardial Infarction
32
What is the main concern when deciding to treat a patient with ischemic heart disease?
Stress or Pain
33
What determines if a pt is a major risk pt?
Experienced MI w/in the last 30 days, unstable angina, unable to meet 4 METs, BP>180/110
34
What should be done in case of major risk patients?
Defer elective tx
35
What is a MET?
a unit of O2 consumption. 1 MET=3.5mL/kg/min at rest
36
What is 4 METs?
Ability to climb a flight of stairs
37
What is congestive heart failure?
Complex clinical syndrome that results in an inability of the ventricle to fill with and eject blood (Represents the end stage of many of the cardiovascular diseases
38
What does untreated or poorly managed heart failure place pts at risk for?
Cardiac arrest, cerebrovascular accident (stroke), and myocardial infarction
39
What are the underlying causes of HF?
Coronary heart disease, cardiomyopathy, hypertension, valvular & congenital heart disease, arrhythmias, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, and endocrine disease
40
What should be done in the dental management of heart failure?
Evaluate risk, identify heart failure, determine if HF is compensated (no symptoms) or decompensated (symptomatic), if decompensated, discuss tx risk with Dr prior to elective care
41
Why is gingival bleeding likely in case of heart failure?
Due to antiplatelet drugs
42
What should be done if a pt is daking digoxin (digitalis)?
DO NOT use vasoconstrictor or epinephrine
43
What are other names for Digoxin?
Digitalis,Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps, Digicaps
44
What should be considered when tx patients with pulmonary edema?
Supine chair position is intolerable
45
In what emergencies is the upright chair position used?
Respiratory Emergencies
46
What is orthostatic (postural) hypotension?
Sudden drop in blood pressure when pt stands after reclining
47
How can orthostatic hypotension be prevented?
Raise chair up slowly, remain in upright position for 2-3 minutes before dismissing client, measure BP before leaving chair
48
How should an orthostatic hypotension emergency be managed?
Supine Position, ensure airway is open, measure BP, if >80/60 mmHg, pt can stand
49
What type of medications have the suffix -olol?
Beta Blockers
50
What type of medications have the suffix -dipine?
Calcium Channel Blockers
51
What type of medications have the suffix -pril?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme Inhibitors (ACE-Inhibitors)
52
What type of medications have the suffix -sartan?
Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS)
53
What type of drugs have the suffix -statin?
HMG-CoA Inhibitors or Hyperlipidemic Agents
54
What do diuretics do?
Cause loss of fluid, reduce blood volume
55
What are the potential adverse effects of diuretics?
Electrolyte disturbance, dehydration, orthostatic hypotension, xerostomia
56
What are the 3 types of diuretics?
Thiazide Diuretics, Loop Diuretics, and Potassium Sparing Diuretics
57
What is the mechanism of action for diuretics?
Not Fully Understood
58
What are some example of Thiazide Diuretics?
Hydrochlorothiazide or HCTZ
59
How do Thiazide Diuretics work?
Act on the distal tubule of the kidney, inhibits NaCl reabsorption, Increases urination, and potassium loss
60
What are the adverse reactions of the thiazides?
Hypokalemia (low potassium), Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia ( high uric acid, calcium, and sodium, and lowered magnesium)
61
What is the most effective diuretic?
Loop Diuretics
62
What are some examples of loop diuretics?
Furosemide (Lasix)
63
How do loop diuretics work?
Inhibit reabsorption of NaCl in the loop of Henle
64
What are the possible adverse affects of loop diuretics?
Severe potassium loss and orthostatic hypotension
65
What do pts taking Lasix also usually take?
Potassium Salts
66
How do potassium sparing diuretics work?
Antagonist of aldosterone which inhibits sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion
67
What are some examples of potassium sparing diuretics?
Spironolactone (Aldactone), Triamterene
68
What does Alpha 1 do?
Constricts vessels of periphery
69
What does Alpha 2 do?
Monitors function of A1 and prevents excessive vasoconstriction
70
What does Beta 1 do?
Makes Heart Beat (Stimulates SA node)
71
What does Beta 2 do?
Vasodilates Lungs, Bronchodilates, Gluconeogenesis
72
What do Beta Blockers do?
Decrease Cardiac Output, HR, Contractility, and Myocardial Oxygen Demand
73
What do cardioselective beta blockers affect?
Beta 1 only
74
What do nonselective beta blockers affect?
Beta 1 and Beta 2
75
What is an example of a cardioselective Beta blocker?
Atenolol (Tenormin), Metoprolol (Lopressor or Toprol)
76
What is an example of a nonselective Beta Blocker?
Propanolol (Inderal)
77
What type of drugs are cardioselective ?
-olol drugs
78
What are the adverse effects of beta blockers?
Bradycardia, first dose syncope, If discontinued abruptly=Heart Attack risk, Long term NSAIDS diminishes effectiveness of Beta blockers, Orthostatic Hypotension, Depression & decreased Sexual FX
79
What happens when BP drops?
Renin is secreted, Renin converts to angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by ACE
80
What are the adverse affects of ACE inhibitors?
Non-Productive Dry Cough, Orthostatic Hypotension, Burning Mouth Syndrome, Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, and Altered Taste
81
What medications are associated with gingival hyperplasia?
Calcium Channel Blockers
82
How does nitroglycerin work?
Increases vasodilation by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, decreases O2 demant by decreasing ventricular filling and heart workload, DILATES VEINS AND LARGE ARTERIES
83
What are the adverse reactions associated with nitroglycerin?
Severely Low BP (especially when taken with viagra), flushing, lightheadedness, and syncope
84
What can exacerbate nitro effects?
Alcohol and Hot Weather
85
What type of drug is Warfarin?
Vitamin K antagonist that blocks synthesis of factors VII, IX, and X
86
What is another name for Warfarin?
Coumadin
87
What is warfarin used for?
Atrial fibrillation, myocardial infarction prevention, stroke, and deep vein thrombosis
88
What are the adverse effects associated with Warfarin?
Bleeding (do NOT take w/aspirin), and Narrow TI
89
What must be monitored when a patient is taking warfarin?
INR
90
What is INR?
A way to standardize prothrombin time (PT)
91
What is PT?
The time for a blood plasma sample to clot following addition of tissue factor III
92
Why are PT and INR used to determine the effects of anticoagulants?
They are known to inhibit the extrinsic pathway
93
How long is normal prothrombin time?
11-15 seconds
94
What is the normal IRN?
0.8-1.2
95
What is the normal IRN value for a patient taking warfarin/coumadin?
2.0-3.0
96
What INR values indicate that a pt should not be treated?
>5 indicates bleeding risk and <0.5 indicates risk of excessive clotting
97
Why are anticoagulants used for arrhythmias?
arrhythmias can cause blood to pool in the cardiac chambers which can create a clot (thrombus)
98
What anticoagulants are used for arrhythmia?
Warfarin, Xarelto, and Pradaxa
99
What is "a red flag drug"?
Digoxin
100
What is Digoxin?
A cardiac glycoside used to enhance cardiac contractility
101
What is Digoxin used for?
Arrhythmias and Heart Failure
102
What does Digoxin do?
Causes a slower, more forceful heart beat
103
Why is Digoxin dangerous?
Has a very low Therapeutic Index (High chance for toxicity)
104
What characteristics increase a patient's odds of Digoxin Toxicity?
Elderly, Hypothyroidism, Renal Insufficiency, Dehydration, Hypokalemia, Hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia
105
What are the clinical manifestations of Digitalis Toxicity?
Headache, Nausea, Vomiting, Hypersalivation, Altered Vision & Color Perception, Fatique, Malaise, Drowsiness, and Arrhythmias
106
What is the pharmacologic category of furosemide?
Antihypertensive, Diuretic, Loop
107
What is furosemide used for?
Edema or volume overload
108
What is the brand name of Furosemide?
Furoscix or Lasix
109
What is the pharmacologic category of hydrochlorothiazide?
Antihypertensive, Diuretic, Thiazide
110
What is hydrochlorothiazide used for?
Edema or general volume overload due to heart failure, various forms of renal dysfunction, or corticosteroid or estrogen therapy
111
What are the effects on dental tx associated with hydrochlorothiazide?
Orthostatic Hypotension upon standing after tx
112
What is the pharmacologic category of spironolactone?
Antihypertensive, Diuretic, Potassium Sparing, Mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) Receptor Antagonist
113
What is the mechanism of action of spironolactone?
Competes with aldosterone for receptor sites in the distal renal tubules, increasing NaCl and water excretion while conserving K and H ions. May block the effect of aldosterone on arteriolar smooth muscles as well
114
What is the pharmacologic category of warfarin sodium?
Anticoagulant, Vitamin K Antagonist
115
What is the mechanism of action of warfarin sodium?
Warfarin inhibits the reactivation of Vitamin K and depletes the functional vitamin K reserves, therefore reducing clotting factors.
116
What is warfarin sodium used for?
Myocardial Infarction: Reduces risk of systemic embolism after MI
117
What are the effects of warfarin sodium on dental treatment?
Increased risk of bleeding, mouth ulcers, and taste disturbance
118
What is the brand name of atenolol?
Tenormin
119
What is the pharmacologic category of atenolol?
Antianginal Agent, Antihypertensive, Beta-Blocker (Beta-1 Selective)
120
What is the mechanism of action of atenolol?
Competatively blocks response to beta-adrenergic stimulation, slectively blocks beta-q receptors with little to no effect on beta-2 receptors except at high doses
121
What is the use of atenolol?
Tx of Chronic, Stable, Angina
122
What is the off-label use for atenolol?
Atrial Fibrillation/Flutter and maintenance of ventricular rate control
123
What is the pharmacologiccategory of lisinopril?
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor; Antihypertensive
124
Heart Failure weduced ejection fraction, Chronic Hypertension, and ST-elevation myocardial infarction
125
What are the effects on dental tx associated with lisinopril?
Dry, Hacking Nonproductive cough, Stevens-Johnson Syndrom, Dysgeusia, Xerostomia, and Orthostatic Hypotension
126
What is the pharmacologic category of verapamil?
Antianginal Agent, Antiarrhythmic Agent (Class IV), Antihypertensive, Calcium Channel Blocker, Nondihydrophyridine
127
What is the mechanism of action for verapamil?
Inhibits Ca from entering "slow channels" and produces the relaxation of coronary smooth muscle. Increases myocardial O2 and slows automaticity and conduction of the AV node
128
What are the uses of verapamil?
Tx of chronic, stable, vasospastic, and unstable angina; Atrial fibrillation control and ventricular rate control; management of hypertension; prophylaxis of supraventricular tachycardia
129
What effects on dental tx are associated with verapamil?
Erythema Multiforme and Stevens-Johnson Syndrome; Gingival Hyperplasia
130
What is the pharmacologic category of amlodipine?
Antianginal Agent; Hypertensive; Calcium Channel Blocker, Dihydropyridine
131
What is teh mechanism of action of amlodipine?
Inhibits Ca from entering "slow channels" and produces relaxation of coronary vascular smooth muscle; increases myocardial O2 delivery in pts with vasospastic angina; Directly acts on vascular smooth muscle to produce peripheral arterial vasodilation reducing peripheral vascular resistance and BP
132
What is amlodipine used for?
Tx of symptomatic chronic stable angina, vasospastic angina, and chronic hypertension
133
What are the effects on dental tx of amlodipine?
Gingival hyperplasia, orthostatic hypotension, and erythema multiforme
134
What is the brand name of valsartan?
Diovan
135
What is the pharmacological category of valsartan?
Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker; Antihypertensive
136
What is the mechanism of action of valsartan?
Produces direct antagonism of the angiotensin II receptors. Displaces angiotensin II from the angiotensin I receptor and lowers BP by antagonizing AT I-induced vasoconstriction
137
What is valsartan used for?
Heart failure w/ reduced ejection fraction; chronic hypertension; post-myocardial infarction
138
What is the brand name of atorvastatin?
Atorvaliq or Lipitor
139
What is the pharmacological category of atorvastatin?
Antilipemic Agent; HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor
140
What is atorvastatin used for?
Heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia; homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia; prevention of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
141
What are the brand names of digoxin?
Digitek, Digox, Lanoxin, Lanoxin Pediatric
142
What is the pharmacologic category of digoxin?
Antiarrhythmic Agent; Cardiac Glycoside
143
What is teh mechanism of action of digoxin?
Inhibits the Na/K ATPase pump in myocardial cells to increase intracellular Na which promotes Ca influx and increases contractility for tx of heart failure; Directly suppresses the AV node conduction to increase effective refractory period and decrease conduction velocity for tx of supraventricular arrhythmias
144
What is digoxin used for?
Atrial fibrillation or artial flutter control; Heart failure weduced ejection fraction
145
What are the local anesthetic/vasoconstrictor precautions associated with digoxin?
Use vasoconstrictors w/caution due to risk of cardiac arrhythmias
146
What is the pharmacological category of nitroglycerin?
Antianginal Agent; Extravasation Antidote; Vasodilator
147
Produces a vasodilator effect on peripheral veins and arteries to reduce cardiac oxygen demand by decreasing preload
148
What is nitroglycerin used for?
Treatment or prevention of angina pectoris
149
What is the pharmacologic category of quinidine?
Antiarrhythmic Agent, Antimalarial Agent
150
What is the mechanism of action of quinidine?
Decreases myocardial excitability and conduction velocity by decreasing Na influx
151
What is the brand name of clopidogrel?
Plavix
152
What is the pharmacologic category of clopidogrel?
Antiplatelet Agent, P2Y12 Antagonist
153
What is clopidogrel used for?
Tx of acute coronary syndrome and myocardial infarctions
154
What are the effects on bleeding of clopidogrel?
Irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation
155
What are considerations dental health professionals should make when treating pts on clopidogrel?
Aspirin in combination with clopidogrel is used to prevent clotting after stent placement. Premature discontinuation of combination antiplatelet therapy increases risk of myocardial infarction and/or death
156
How does infective endocarditis develop?
Injury to the endothelial surface results in a rough surface where masses form. Transient bacteremia occurs and microorganisms adhere to the mass and multiply. Bacterial masses shed continuously and produce a systematic bacteremia
157
What are the clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis?
Fragments of mass break off and embolize=stroke or pulmonary embolism
158
What are the signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis?
Fever, New Heart Murmur, Positive Blood Culture
159
When do signs/symptoms of infective endocarditis manifest?
<2 weeks from initial bacteremia in 80% of cases
160
What are the peripheral signs/symptoms of infective endocarditis?
Palatal, buccal petechiae, petechiae on extremities, osler's nodes, splinter hemorrhages of nail beds, nail clubbing
161
When is antibiotic prophylaxis recommended for infective endocarditis prevention?
Only for pts who are likely to experience the worst outcomes(death) of infective endocarditis
162
What conditions warrant premed?
Prothetic Cardiac Valve, Previous Infective Endocarditis, Congenital Heart Disease, Cardiac Trasplantation Recipients
163
When should a patient with congenital heart disease be premedicated?
Unrepaired cyanotic CHD, including palliative shunts and conduits; completely repaired CHD w/prosthetic material or device during first 6 months after procedure; repaired CHD wesidual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or prosthetic device
164
How much amoxicillin should be taken as a premed?
2g
165
How much Cephalexin should be taken as a premed?
2g
166
How much doxycycline should be taken as a premed?
100mg
167
How much Azithromycin/Clarithromycin should be taken as a premed?
500 mg
168
What patients/devices are NOT inicated for premed?
Nonvalvular or intravascular devices (pacemakers, artificial hearts, shunts, conduits, pathces, stents, grafts, filters, catheters)
169
What are the advantages of a wrist BP cuff?
Fast and convenient, easier to use on self, more accessible for caregivers w/o medical experience
170
What are the disadvantages of a wrist BP cuff?
Tends to not give accurate readings
171
What is an ischemic stroke?
Blockage/Clot w/in the blood vessels where brain tissue damage occurs
172
What is a hemorragic stroke?
Blood vessel within the brain ruptures=bleeding w/in and around brain tissue
173
What are the risk factors associated with stroke?
Hypertension, older than 75, diabetes, heart failure, history of strokes, smoking tobacco, coronary atherosclerosis
174
What are the signs/symptoms of stroke?
DIfficulty speaking or understanding speech, temporary dimness or loss of vision(usually in 1 eye), Dizziness, Unsteadiness, or Sudden Falling, Paralysis or Weakness on one side of the face
175
What is the acronym used for identifying stroke?
BEFAST
176
What does BEFAST stand for?
B=Balance, E=EYes, F=Face, A=Arms, S=Speech, T=Time
177
What is a transient ischemic attack?
"mini-stroke", brief blockage of blood flow to the brain, does not usually cause long-term damage, warning sign of future strokes
178
What is the most common type of arrhythmia?
Atrial Fibrillation
179
What type of arrhythmias are life-threatening?
Ventricular Tachycardia & Ventricular Fibrillation
180
What are the signs/symptoms of cardiac arrhythmia?
Irregular heartbeat (fast or slow), Irregular Rythms; Anxiety or Heart Palpitations; Syncope, Dizziness, or Feeling Faint; Congestive Heart Failure; Tinnitus or Visual Changes
181
What drugs are used to treat arrhythmias?
Quinidine, Propanolol, Amiodarone, and Verapamil
182
What are the cardiac effects of sleep apnea?
Hypertension, Stroke, Obesity, and Metabolic Syndrome
183
What are the oral manifestations of sleep apnea?
Mallampati III and IV; Attrition, Tooth Pain, Headache; Macroglossia; High Vaulted Palate; Xerostomia
184
How can sleep apnea be dentally managed?
Identification, Custom Fit Oral Appliances, Risk Assessment
185
What are the Mallampati Classifications?
Used to evaluate a pt's risk of sleep apnea?
186
What is a Mallampati Class I?
Uvula, Soft Palate, and Faucial Pillars are completely visible
187
What is a Mallampati Class II?
Uvula, Soft Palate, and Faucial Pillars are Visible, but partially obstructed
188
What is a Mallampati Class III?
Only the Uvula and Soft Palate are partially visible; pillars are completely obstructed
189
What is a Mallampati Class IV?
Only the hard palate is visible; soft palate, uvula, and pillars are completely obstructed
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