Skeletal Muscle Anatomy and Physiology

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1
Individual skeletal muscle fibers ______________. More than one answer may be correct. Mark all that are correct.
A. have one nucleus
B. are striated
C. are branched
D. are elongated cells
E. have multiple nuclei
are striated
are elongated cells
. have multiple nuclei
2
Within a skeletal muscle, the __________________ are dark bands.
A. A bands B. I bands C. E bands D. rubber bands
A bands
3
Skeletal muscle fibers can only ACTIVELY shorten (contract) and relax.
T / F
True
4
A somatic motor neuron initiates the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber through the release of the
neurotransmitter _____________.
A. dopamine B. norepinephrine
C. GABA D. acetylcholine E. botulinum toxin
acetylcholine
5
In terms of ionic flus, what does the binding of neurotransmitter at a NMJ (neuromuscular junction) do?
Neurotransmitter binding opens ion channels, causing primarily Na+ influx and some K+ efflux, depolarizing the motor end plate.
6
Define a motor neuron unit.
A motor unit consists of one motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates
7
A skeletal muscle with an average motor unit size of 1 motor neuron/1,500 muscle fibers would most
likely be _________________.
A. powerful B. precise
A. powerful
8
How does the process of recruitment increase the force of a skeletal muscle’s contraction?
Recruitment activates additional motor units, increasing the number of contracting muscle fibers and the total force generated.
9
____________ are the primary components of thick myofilaments in skeletal muscle fibers.
A. The protein Actin
B. The protein Titin
C. The protein Myosin
D. The Z discs
The protein Myosin
10
During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber (cell) _______________, the distance between two Z lines
increases.
T / F
F
11
11. During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber _______________.
A. a sarcomere shortens
B. The length of actin filaments decreases
C. the length of the A band decreases
D. the length of myosin filaments decreases
a sarcomere shortens
12
12. Skeletal muscle fibers have numerous sarcomeres.
T / F
True
13
When a skeletal muscle is at rest, actin filaments and myosin filaments are attached to one another
via cross-bridges.
T / F
False
14
As skeletal muscle fibers contract, myosin heads undergo a power stroke when there is the
A. direct binding of calcium to the myosin head
B. phosphorylation of the myosin head
C. dephophorylation of the myosin head
D. direct binding of acetylcholine to the myosin head
dephophorylation of the myosin head
15
How does Botulinum toxin lead to skeletal muscle paralysis?
Botulinum toxin prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons, preventing muscle stimulation and causing paralysis.
16
Before a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, myosin heads are energized (or “cocked”) by _____________.
A. the direct binding of nicotine to the myosin head
B. phosphorylation of the myosin head
C. the direct binding of acetylcholine to the myosin head
D. the direct binding of calcium to the myosin head
phosphorylation of the myosin head
17
Within a skeletal muscle fiber, ___________ are specialized structures that conduct action potentials to
the interior of the cell.
A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Transverse (T) tubules
C. Motor end plates
D. All of the above
Transverse (T) tubules
18
During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, __________ binds to troponin, which reveals myosin binding sites on thin filaments.
A. sodium B. potassium C. magnesium D. calcium
calcium
19
The sarcoplasmic reticulum of a skeletal muscle fiber ___________. More than one answer may be correct. Mark ALL that are correct.
A. stores potassium
B. stores calcium
C. possesses voltage-gated potassium channels
D. possesses calcium channels that open in response to increases in cytoplasmic calcium
E. possesses calcium channels that are physically coupled to voltage-gated calcium channels
possesses calcium channels that open in response to increases in cytoplasmic calcium
possesses calcium channels that are physically coupled to voltage-gated calcium channels
20
20. During exercise (like heavy lifting), the strength of a SKELETAL muscle contraction is mostly due to _________________.
A. increases in acetylcholine release from a motor neuron in response to a single action potential
B. the recruitment of more motor units
C. increases in the production of voltage-gated potassium channels
D. all of the above
the recruitment of more motor units
21
During the complete tetanus of a skeletal muscle (for example, a calf muscle from a frog), the muscle eventually begins to fatigue and fail to contract. Why is this the case?
During sustained tetanus, fatigue develops as energy availability and processes supporting excitation-contraction coupling become impaired, reducing force production.
22
In general, about 50% of the ATP used by a contracting skeletal muscle goes to moving myosin heads.
T / F
True
23
If a person has a high maximal oxygen uptake (VO2 Max) of about 80 ml of oxygen per minute per kg of body weight, they are most likely older and sedentary.
True / False
False
24
If a person is exercising at 90% of their VO2 max, there is likely large amounts of lactate in their blood from the anaerobic metabolism of glucose.
True / False
True
25
Match the following aerobic exercise intensities with the sources of ATP that are used by skeletal muscles.
A. ATP derived mostly from glycogen stored in skeletal muscle
B. ATP derived mostly from fats stored in adipose tissue
C. ATP derived from a variety of sources
26
26. During exercise, about 30% of the ATP that is used by a skeletal muscle ___________.
A. powers myosin B. powers Ca2+ pumps
C. powers Na+/K+ pumps D. powers K+ channels
. powers Ca2+ pumps
27
During bursts of intense exercise in which ATP is depleted faster than it can be generated by aerobic or anaerobic metabolism, ___________________can be used by the enzyme creatine kinase 3 (CK-3) to
phosphorylate ADP, making ATP.
A. lactic acid B. phosphocreatine
C. glucose D. oxygen
phosphocreatine
28
28. Slow-twitch (Type I) skeletal muscle fibers ______________. More than one answer may be correct.
Indicate ALL that are correct.
A. have few capillaries
B. have many capillaries
C. have high amounts of myoglobin
D. have low amounts of myoglobin
E. have few mitochondria
F. have many mitochondria
have many capillaries
have high amounts of myoglobin
have many mitochondria
29
Most postural skeletal muscles are mostly ________________ muscle fibers.
A. slow-twitch B. fast-twitch
slow-twitch
30
The thigh muscles of an extreme endurance athlete are likely almost all fast-twitch fibers.
True / False
False
31
31. Different isoforms of myosin have different rates of ATP hydrolysis, which contributes to differences
in the speed of skeletal muscle contraction.
True / False
True
32
Fast-twitch skeletal muscle fibers ________________. More than one answer may be correct. Indicate ALL
that are correct.
A. have large stores of glycogen
B. are found in postural muscles
C. usually have a white tint
D. usually have a red tint
E. are slow to fatigue
F. are specialized for anaerobic metabolism
G. are specialized for aerobic metabolism
have large stores of glycogen
usually have a white tint
are specialized for anaerobic metabolism
33
List 2 adaptations of skeletal muscle to training.
A.
B.
Increased muscle fiber size (hypertrophy). B. Increased mitochondrial density with
endurance training.
34
Resistance training (like weight lifting) increases the size of skeletal muscle fibers by increasing
_________________. Mark ALL that are correct.
A. the amount of actin protein in a cell
B. the number of sarcomeres in a cell
C. the amount of myosin protein in a cell
D. the number of cells
the amount of actin protein in a cell
the number of sarcomeres in a cell
the amount of myosin protein in a cell
35
35. List 2 locations where smooth muscle is located.
A.
B.
A. Walls of blood vessels. B. Walls of the digestive tract.
36
How many synapses are involved in a stretch reflex of a skeletal muscle?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
1
37
_____________ are specializations that cardiac muscle cells possess that help these cells contract
(relatively) simultaneously.
A. nicotinic acetylcholine receptors B. T Tubules
C. gap junctions D. all of the above
gap junctions
38
38. _____________________ return blood to the heart.
A. Arteries B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Lymphatic Vessels
Veins
39
All of the exchanges between blood and cells happens at which component of the cardiovascular system?
A. arteries B. veins C. the heart D. capillaries
capillaries
40
On average, humans have about 5 liters of blood that is pumped through the body by the heart at a rate of about ______ liters/minute.
A. 100 B. 50 C. 5 D. 10
5
41
Which of the following are found in blood plasma? Multiple answers may be correct. Indicate all that are correct.
A. antibodies B. albumin C. sodium ions
D. glucose E. triglycerides F. bicarbonate ions
G. hormones
antibodies B. albumin C. sodium ions
D. glucose E. triglycerides F. bicarbonate ions
G. hormones
42
________________ ions are blood buffers.
A. K+ B. H+ C. Na+ D. HCO3-
HCO3
43
Erythrocytes typically contain at least 1,000 mitochondria.
True / False
False
44
A single red blood cell contains about _______________.
A. 1 million mitochondria
B. 100 molecules of hemoglobin
C. 280 million molecules of hemoglobin
D. 1 nucleus
280 million molecules of hemoglobin
45
Erythropoietin (EPO) _________________. Multiple answers may be correct. Indicate ALL that are correct.
A. may be used to treat anemia
B. is produced by the pituitary gland
C. is produced by the kidneys
D. stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow
E. stimulates white blood cell production in lymph nodes
may be used to treat anemia
is produced by the kidneys
stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow
46
In an adult, red blood cells are constantly made from stem cells in the _______________.
A. skeletal muscle B. liver C. kidneys D. bone marrow
bone marrow
47
How does a erythrocyte’s shape contribute to the transport of oxygen to cells?
The biconcave shape increases surface area relative to volume, facilitating oxygen
exchange. It also allows red blood cells to deform through narrow capillaries.
48
A single molecule of hemoglobin binds _____________ molecules of oxygen.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4
49
Name two instances that may result in anemia.
1. __________________________________ 2. _____________________________
Blood loss. 2. Iron deficiency.
50
Which type(s) of leukocyte are immune cells that are capable of phagocytosis? More than one answer may be correct. Indicate ALL that are correct.
A. Basophils B. Monocytes C. Lymphocytes
D. Platelets E. Eosinophils F. Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
51
51. Which type of leukocyte produces antibodies?
A. Basophils B. Monocytes C. Lymphocytes
D. Platelets E. Eosinophils F. Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
52
At a break in a blood vessel, _______________________ can induce vasoconstriction and also form clots.
A. Basophils B. Lymphocytes C. Platelets D. Erythrocytes
Platelets
53
If a person with Type AB- blood receives a transfusion of Type O- blood, an agglutination reaction is likely to occur.
True / False
False
54
The heart's _____________ pumps oxygen-poor blood into pulmonary circulation out to the lungs.
A. right atria B. right ventricle
C. left atria D. left ventricle
right ventricle
55
The __________ of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from systemic circulation, via the superior and inferior vena cava.
A. right atrium B. right ventricle
C. left atrium D. left ventricle
right atrium
56
The muscular wall of the left ventricle is typically the thickest of the 4 chambers.
T/ F
True
57
Cordae tendinae normally prevent the prolapse of the human heart’s mitral valve. If they lengthen, blood may flow back into the left atrium as the left ventricle contracts.
True / False
True
58
The heart valves at the ventricular exits are the _________________ valves. Circle ALL that are correct.
A. pulmonary semilunar B. mitral C. tricuspid D aortic semilunar
pulmonary semilunar
aortic semilunar
59
____________is the phase of cardiac contraction.
A. systole B. diastole
systole
60
During the cardiac cycle at a heart rate of 75 bpm, systole lasts about 0.3 seconds and diastole lasts about ______ seconds.
A. 0.3 seconds B. 0.5 seconds C. 1.5 seconds D. 3 seconds
0.5 seconds
61
During the ____________ phase of the cardiac cycle, the pressure in the left ventricle rises above that in the aorta, opening the semilunar valve.
A. isovolumetric relaxation B. ejection
C. rapid filling D. isovolumetric contraction
ejection
62
The ventricular stroke-volume is always 100% of the total volume in that ventricle.
T / F
False
63
During the ___________ phase of the cardiac cycle, both the atrioventricular valve and the aortic semilunar valve are closed.
A. ejection B. isovolumetric relaxation
C. rapid filling D. all of the above
isovolumetric relaxation
64
The heart's primary pacemaker is located in the _________________.
A. right atrium B. left atrium
C. right ventricle D. left ventricle
right atrium
65
The autorhythmic pacemaker potentials in the cells of the SA Node of the heart are due to
_________________.
A. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
B. the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
C. the opening of HCN sodium channels, which open in response to hyperpolarization
D. the opening of acetylcholine receptors
the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
66
The binding of ___________________ to its receptor on pacemaker cells of the SA Node opens HCN sodium channels, increasing the heart rate.
A. Acetylcholine B. Nicotine
C. Norepinephrine D. Serotonin
Norepinephrine
67
The binding of ______________ to its receptor on pacemaker cells of the SA node opens potassium channels, slowing the rate of pacemaker potentials and the heart beat. More than one answer may be
correct. Indicate ALL that are correct.
A. norepinephrine B. nicotine (a toxin found in some plants)
C. epinephrine
D.muscarine (a toxin found in some mushrooms)
E. acetylcholine
muscarine (a toxin found in some mushrooms)
acetylcholine
68
“Rest and Digest” functions of the autonomic nervous system are regulated by the __________________
division.
A. sympathetic B. ganglionic C. parasympathetic D. none of the above
parasympathetic
69
The action potentials of a cardiac muscle cell have a slow plateau phase due to the _________________.
A. influx of K+ B. influx of Ca2+
C. influx of Na+ D. efflux of K+
influx of Ca2+
70
Which structure of the heart transmits action potentials to the outer walls of the 2 ventricles?
A. Bundle of His B. AV node C. Purkinje Fibers D. SA node
Purkinje Fibers
71
All four chambers of the heart contract simultaneously.
T / F
False
72
In an ECG (electrocardiogram) the __________ wave represents
ventricular repolarization.
A. P B. QRS C. T
T
73
An ECG is a DIRECT representation of the action potentials in cardiac muscle cells.
T / F
False
74
__________________ protect(s) arteries from plaque formation and atherosclerosis. More than one answer may be correct.
A. Drinking a lot B. Exercise
C. Smoking D. High-density lipoproteins
E. Diabetes F. avocados G. bacon
Exercise
High-density lipoproteins
avocados
75
The accumulation of ______________________, due to decreased coronary blood/oxygen supply, can cause
Angina pectoris.
A. lactic acid B. glycogen C. ATP D. glucose
lactic acid
76
______________ are life-saving devices that stimulate action potentials in cardiac muscle cells all at once.
The cells enter a refractory state, allowing the SA Node to ‘reset’ the cells into coordinated
contractions.
A. Centrifuges B. Electrocardiograms
C. MRI machines D. Electric Defibrillators
Electric Defibrillators
77
If a person has a heart rate of 65 beats per minute and their heart has a stroke volume of 90
milliliters per beat, what is their cardiac output?
____________________________ (Be sure to include the correct units.)
5,850 mL/min or 5.85 L/min
78
Which circulation has higher blood flow, lower resistance, and lower pressure?
A. systemic circulation B. pulmonary circulation
pulmonary circulation
79
When a well-trained elite endurance athlete wakes up in the morning, their resting heart rate is low
(say 35 bpm). This is due to ______________ that accompanies training.
A. increases in sympathetic nerve activity
B. increases in Vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) activity
C. decreases in sympathetic nerve activity
D. decreases in Vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) activity
increases in Vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) activity
decreases in sympathetic nerve activity
80
The region of the brain that controls the heart rate, via autonomic innervation, is found in the
________________.
A. pre-central gyrus of the cortex B. medulla oblongata
C. occipital lobe of the cortex D. thalamus
medulla oblongata
81
Imagine a patient has a cardiac stroke volume of 75 ml per beat. INCREASES in which of the
following variables would INCREASE the patient's stroke volume. More than one answer may be
correct. Indicate ALL that are correct.
A. the total peripheral resistance
B. the strength of ventricular contraction
C. the EDV (end-diastolic volume)
D. Parasympathetic nerve activity
the strength of ventricular contraction
the EDV (end-diastolic volume)
82
82. In a cardiac muscle cell, increases in __________ increase the strength of muscle cell contraction.
Multiple answers may be correct. Indicate all that are correct.
A. intracellular calcium
B. Vagus nerve stimulation
C. . sympathetic nerve stimulation
D. sarcomere stretch due to increases in End-Diastolic Volume
intracellular calcium
sympathetic nerve stimulation
sarcomere stretch due to increases in End-Diastolic Volume
83
Liver damage can lead to edema, since it produces most of the blood plasma proteins (like albumin)
that generate colloid osmotic pressure within blood vessels.
True / False
True
84
_____________ is a hormone that is a strong vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure in response
to pressure drops.
A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) B. Angiotensin II
C. Aldosterone
Angiotensin II
85
Increasing the radius of a small artery by 3-fold (through vasodialation) would decrease the blood flowing through it __________.
A. 9-fold B. 3-fold
C. 81-fold D. 27-fold
3-fold
86
At rest, our skeletal muscles are the organs with the highest blood flow.
True / False
False
87
At rest, the brain receives about ___________________ of the body’s total blood flow.
A. 0.5% B. 13% C. 21% D. 75%
13%
88
_____________released by sympathetic nerves causes vasoconstriction of arterioles in the intestines, shunting blood to other organs.
A. Acetylcholine B. Glucose
C. Dopamine D. Norepinephrine
Norepinephrine
89
The _________________ layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle that can be signaled to contract.
A. inner (tunica intima) B. middle (tunica media) C. outer (tunica externa)
middle (tunica media)
90
Nitric oxide and histamine are both paracrine signaling molecules that promote vasodilation of blood vessels.
True / False
True
91
During heavy exercise, about ______________ of the body’s total blood flow is diverted to skeletal muscles.
A. 20% B. 45% C. 85% D. 100%
85%
92
During exercise, _______________. More than one answer may be correct.
A. increased sympathetic nerve stimulation increases the heart's stroke volume
B. increased Vagus nerve stimulation increases heart rate
C. increased sympathetic nerve stimulation increases the heart rate
D. decreased Vagus nerve stimulation increases the heart rate
increased sympathetic nerve stimulation increases the heart's stroke volume
increased sympathetic nerve stimulation increases the heart rate
decreased Vagus nerve stimulation increases the heart rate
93
When a nurse manually checks a patient's blood pressure, the systolic pressure is indicated by
______________.
A. the sound of heart valves closing
B. the 1st Korotkoff sounds
C. the last Korotkoff sounds
D. the sound of heart valves opening
the 1st Korotkoff sounds
94
Increases in sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels is one cause of high blood pressure.
True / False
True
95
Anaphylaxis occurs when widespread vasodilation causes a drop in blood pressure due to the effects of ___________________.
A. norepinephrine B. angiotensin converting enzyme
C. serotonin D. histamine.
histamine
96
All microbes are pathogens.
True / False
False
97
In terms of innate immunity, how are the skin and the stomach similar?
Both provide innate defenses against pathogens. Skin acts as a physical and chemical barrier, while stomach acid destroys many microbes.
98
98. Diapedesis aids in fighting off infection ___________________.
A. by increasing the production of antibodies
B. by increasing body temperature
C. by allowing phagocytic cells to leave the blood and enter an infected tissue
D. all of the above
by allowing phagocytic cells to leave the blood and enter an infected tissue
99
All fevers are harmful.
T / F
False
100
Transferring the serum from an immunized person to a second person transfers adaptive immunity.
A. True B. False
True
101
____________ are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes
C. Erythrocytes D. Monocytes
T lymphocytes
102
Specific antibodies bind to specific antigens present on pathogens.
True / False
True
103
Antibodies are made up of ___________________.
A. 1 heavy chain and 2 light chains
B. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains
C. 2 heavy chains and 1light chain
D. 2 heavy chains and 3 light chains
2 heavy chains and 2 light chains
104
Humans are born with ~100 trillion antibodies.
T / F
False
105
Define opsinization.
Opsonization is the coating of a pathogen with antibodies or complement proteins, making it easier for phagocytes to recognize and engulf it.
106
____________ are cells of the immune system that secrete enzymes which trigger programmed
cell death (apoptosis).
A. B lymphocytes B. Helper T lymphocytes
C. Killer T lymphocytes D. Neutrophils
Killer
107
During the primary exposure to an antigen, antibodies specific for that antigen are
detectable in the blood after about ______________.
A. 1-10 minutes B. 2 hours
C. 5-10 days D. 20-30 days
5-10 days
108
Genetically-identical Memory B lymphocytes are found in ______________.
A. the kidneys B. lymph nodes and the spleen
C. the brain D. the heart
lymph nodes and the spleen
109
During a secondary immune response, a person may not develop symptoms caused by the
exposure to a pathogen.
T / F
True
110
Match the following modern vaccines with their descriptions.
Viral Vector __________ A. Original Pfizer and Moderna Covid-19 vaccines
mRNA _________ B. Zika virus vaccine
Toxoid _________ D. Tetanus vaccine
Live attenuated _________ E. Chickenpox vaccine
Viral vector = B, mRNA = A, Toxoid = D, Live attenuated = E
111
Match the following autoimmune diseases with their cause.
Myasthenia Gravis ______________
Type I diabetes _____________
Rheumatoid arthritis ___________
A. helper T cells recognize pancreatic beta cells as foreign
B. antibodies develop against acetylcholine receptors
C. IgG antibodies are recognized by IgM antibodies as foreign
Myasthenia gravis = B, Type I diabetes = A, Rheumatoid arthritis = C
112
Why is a new flu vaccination necessary every season?
Influenza viruses frequently undergo antigenic changes, so vaccines are updated to target
the strains expected to circulate each season.
113
Immediate hypersensitivity allergies ________________. Mark ALL that are correct.
A. involve the stimulation of Mast cells to release histamine
B. can cause the constriction of lung bronchioles
C. are due to an 'overactive' immune response to a normally harmless antigen
D. have symptoms that develop over seconds or minutes
E. have symptoms that develop over hours or days
A. involve the stimulation of Mast cells to release histamine
B. can cause the constriction of lung bronchioles
C. are due to an 'overactive' immune response to a normally harmless antigen
D. have symptoms that develop over seconds or minutes
114
Spike proteins on SARS-CoV-2 aid infection of human cells by binding to _________________.
A. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
B. angiotensin converting enzyme 2 receptors
C. nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
D. none of the above
angiotensin converting enzyme 2 receptors
115
Antihistamines are a good treatment for BOTH immediate- and delayed-hypersensitivity
allergies.
T / F
False
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