1What are cyanobacteria?
Photosynthetic bacteria that have major roles in global carbon and nitrogen cycles.
2Why are cyanobacteria important to Earth's history?
They helped create Earth's oxygen-rich atmosphere.
3What are potential biotechnology applications of cyanobacteria?
Biofuels, optogenetics, and biofertilizers.
4What model cyanobacterium is used in this lab?
Nostoc punctiforme.
5What are heterocysts?
Specialized cells that fix nitrogen.
6What are akinetes?
Spore-like, dormant cells.
7What are hormogonia?
Motile cyanobacterial filaments that glide across solid surfaces.
8What is a transposon?
A short piece of DNA that can move, or "hop," from one DNA location to another.
9What does transposase do?
It cuts and re-ligates DNA, allowing the transposon to insert into a target site.
10What is an insertion sequence (IS)?
A DNA sequence recognized by transposase that helps define the transposon's insertion region.
11Why does the lab transposon carry an antibiotic-resistance gene?
It allows selection of cells in which the transposon inserted into the chromosome.
12Which antibiotic resistance is used for selection in this lab?
Neomycin resistance; the slides also mention kanamycin resistance.
13How does transposon mutagenesis identify gene function?
Random insertion can disrupt a gene; researchers identify mutants with an altered phenotype and sequence the insertion site.
14What are the main steps in this lab's transposon-mutagenesis workflow?
Conjugation → neomycin selection → screen for hypermotility → extract chromosome → digest → ligate → inverse PCR → gel purification → sequencing.
15Why screen individual colonies after neomycin selection?
To find colonies with the desired phenotype, especially hypermotility.
16Why can transposon insertion cause a mutation?
Insertion into the middle of a gene can disrupt its normal function.
17What enzyme digests chromosomal DNA in Lab 8?
HpaII.
18What DNA sequence does HpaII recognize and cut?
CCGG.
19How often is the CCGG restriction site expected to occur?
About once every 256 base pairs, assuming equal base frequencies.
20Why is CCGG expected every 256 bp?
Each base has an assumed probability of 1/4, so $(1/4)^4 = 1/256$.
21Why use a four-base cutter such as HpaII?
It cuts more frequently, producing smaller DNA fragments.
22What conditions are used for the HpaII digest?
The appropriate buffer and 37°C incubation for 30 minutes.
23Why heat-inactivate HpaII before ligation?
Heating to 80°C irreversibly denatures HpaII and prevents it from cutting DNA during ligation.
24What enzyme joins the digested DNA fragments?
T4 DNA ligase.
25Why are the digested DNA fragments self-ligated?
To form circular DNA molecules containing the transposon and adjacent chromosomal DNA.
26What helps DNA fragments join during ligation?
Their sticky ends anneal; T4 DNA ligase then covalently joins the ends.
27What does T4 DNA ligase use as an energy source?
ATP supplied in the reaction buffer.
28What are the ligation conditions in Lab 8?
16°C overnight.
29What is the purpose of standard PCR?
To amplify a specific DNA region using primers, nucleotides, buffer, and heat-stable DNA polymerase.
30What are the main ingredients of a PCR reaction?
Template DNA, primers, dNTPs, buffer/cofactors including Mg²⁺, and Taq DNA polymerase.
31What happens during PCR denaturation?
At about 94°C, double-stranded DNA separates into single strands.
32What happens during PCR annealing?
At about 55°C, primers bind to complementary template sequences.
33What happens during PCR extension?
At about 72°C, Taq polymerase adds nucleotides to the primers' 3′ ends.
34How many PCR cycles are described in Lab 9?
35 cycles.
35How do standard PCR primers orient?
They face inward toward one another, flanking the DNA region to be amplified.
36How do inverse PCR primers orient?
They face outward from a known DNA region, so amplification proceeds into the unknown flanking DNA.
37Why is it called inverse PCR?
The primers point outward rather than inward as in standard PCR.
38What DNA arrangement is used for inverse PCR in this workflow?
Restriction-digested DNA fragments are circularized by ligation before inverse PCR.
39How does inverse PCR reveal DNA next to a transposon?
Outward-facing primers bind within known transposon DNA and amplify across the circle into unknown adjacent chromosomal DNA.
40What is the goal of inverse PCR in this project?
Amplify the chromosomal DNA flanking the transposon insertion so the insertion site can be identified by sequencing.
41Why run PCR products on an agarose gel in Lab 10?
To confirm that PCR products are present and are the expected size.
42How does agarose separate DNA fragments?
Agarose forms a porous molecular sieve; smaller DNA fragments move through it faster.
43Why does DNA move toward the positive electrode?
DNA has a negatively charged phosphate backbone.
44What is ethidium bromide used for in agarose gel electrophoresis?
It binds DNA and fluoresces under UV light, allowing DNA bands to be visualized.
45What is a molecular-weight marker used for?
It provides DNA fragments of known sizes to estimate the sizes of sample fragments.
46What is the first step in DNA gel extraction?
Cut the desired DNA band out of the agarose gel.
47What does sodium iodide do during gel extraction?
It disrupts hydrogen bonding in the agarose, helping dissolve the gel.
48Why is heat applied during gel extraction?
To help melt and dissolve the agarose gel.
49What happens after the gel slice dissolves?
The solution is applied to a silica-containing column.
50How does DNA bind to the silica column during purification?
Under high-salt conditions, DNA binds to the silica.
51What is the purpose of washing the silica column?
To remove contaminants while the DNA remains bound to the silica.
52How is purified DNA recovered from the silica column?
By elution with a low-salt, high-pH solution.
53What happens to the purified PCR product after gel extraction?
It is sent for DNA sequencing and analyzed to identify the transposon insertion site.