1What are the major stages of a forensic DNA laboratory workflow?
Evidence assessment, sampling, DNA extraction, quantitation, amplification, separation and detection, interpretation, technical review, and reporting.
2What is DNA extraction?
The process of releasing DNA from biological material and preparing it for subsequent analysis.
3What is DNA purification?
The removal of proteins, inhibitors, and other unwanted substances from a DNA-containing preparation.
4What is organic DNA extraction?
An extraction method traditionally using phenol-chloroform chemistry to separate proteins and other materials from nucleic acids.
5What is Chelex-based DNA extraction?
A method using a chelating resin to bind metal ions and help prepare DNA for amplification.
6What is silica-based DNA purification?
A method in which DNA binds to silica under suitable chemical conditions and is subsequently washed and eluted.
7What is magnetic bead-based DNA extraction?
A purification method using particles that bind nucleic acids and can be separated from liquids using a magnetic field.
8What is differential extraction in forensic DNA analysis?
A procedure intended to separate sperm-associated DNA from other cellular DNA in suitable mixed biological samples.
9Does differential extraction guarantee complete separation of sperm and nonsperm DNA?
No. Incomplete separation and cross-contamination between fractions can occur.
10What is cell lysis?
The disruption of cellular membranes or structures to release intracellular components, including DNA.
11What is the purpose of proteinase K in many DNA extraction procedures?
To digest proteins and help release and protect DNA during sample preparation.
12What is the purpose of dithiothreitol or DTT in certain forensic DNA extractions?
To reduce disulfide bonds, including those in sperm nuclear proteins, facilitating DNA release.
13What is an extraction blank?
A negative control processed through DNA extraction without an evidentiary sample to monitor contamination.
14What is a PCR negative control?
A reaction containing the amplification reagents without added target DNA, used to monitor contamination introduced during amplification setup.
15What is a PCR positive control?
A reaction containing known DNA expected to produce a specified amplification result.
16Why should DNA extraction and amplified DNA products be handled in separated laboratory areas?
To reduce the risk that concentrated amplified DNA contaminates unamplified evidence samples.
17What is carryover contamination in forensic DNA testing?
Unintended transfer of DNA from a previous sample or analytical process into another sample or reaction.
18What is cross-contamination between evidence samples?
The unintended introduction of biological material from one sample into another.
19What is elimination DNA profiling?
Comparison with reference profiles from relevant personnel or others to help identify possible contamination sources.
20What is the purpose of changing gloves between biological evidence samples?
To reduce unintended transfer of DNA and other material between samples.
21What is DNA degradation?
The breakdown or fragmentation of DNA through chemical, biological, or environmental processes.
22How can ultraviolet radiation affect DNA evidence?
It can produce DNA damage that may interfere with successful amplification or interpretation.
23How can moisture and microbial activity affect biological evidence?
They can promote decomposition and DNA degradation, particularly when evidence is stored improperly.
24What is a DNA degradation index?
A measure comparing amplification or quantitation signals from different-sized DNA targets to help assess fragmentation.
25Why can shorter DNA targets be more successful in degraded samples?
Shorter intact fragments are more likely to remain available for amplification when DNA has been fragmented.
26What is a mini-STR assay?
An STR analysis approach designed to amplify shorter DNA fragments, potentially improving results from degraded material.
27What is DNA quantitation?
The measurement or estimation of DNA amount or concentration in a sample.
28Why is DNA quantitation performed before STR amplification?
To select an appropriate DNA input amount and identify potential issues such as low quantity, inhibition, or degradation.
29What is an internal PCR control or IPC?
A known amplification target included in a reaction to help assess amplification performance or inhibition.
30What is a stochastic effect in low-template DNA analysis?
Random variation in amplification that may produce imbalanced peaks, allele dropout, or other unpredictable profile features.
31What is peak height in an STR electropherogram?
The measured fluorescence intensity of a detected peak, commonly expressed in relative fluorescence units.
32What does RFU stand for in forensic DNA electropherograms?
Relative fluorescence units.
33What is an analytical threshold in STR interpretation?
A laboratory-defined signal level used to distinguish reportable peaks from background noise under specified conditions.
34What is a stochastic threshold in traditional STR interpretation?
A validated signal threshold used to assess the risk that an associated allele may have dropped out.
35What is heterozygote peak-height imbalance?
A difference in the heights of two allelic peaks at a heterozygous locus beyond or within expected analytical variation.
36What is peak-height ratio in STR analysis?
A comparison of the heights of two peaks, often used to evaluate heterozygote balance or mixture characteristics.
37What is pull-up in capillary electrophoresis?
A spectral artifact in which fluorescence from one dye channel appears in another because of imperfect color separation.
38What is a dye blob in STR electrophoresis?
An artifact caused by fluorescent dye-related material that may produce a broad or atypical signal.
39What is an off-ladder allele?
An observed STR allele that falls outside the allele positions represented in the allelic ladder and requires appropriate evaluation.
40What is a tri-allelic pattern?
The observation of three allelic signals at a locus, which may reflect biological variation, a mixture, or an analytical issue.
41What is the purpose of replicate testing in challenging DNA samples?
To assess the consistency of observed results and help evaluate stochastic effects or other uncertainties.
42What is a DNA mixture contributor number?
An estimate of how many individuals contributed DNA to a mixed sample.
43Why can contributor-number estimation be uncertain?
Allele sharing, dropout, peak imbalance, low-level contributors, and artifacts can obscure the number of sources.
44What is kinship analysis in forensic genetics?
The statistical evaluation of genetic evidence to assess proposed biological relationships.
45What is a paternity index?
A likelihood ratio comparing the genetic evidence under a specified paternity proposition with an alternative proposition.
46What is a combined paternity index?
A combination of locus-specific paternity indices under appropriate genetic and statistical assumptions.
47Why must DNA conclusions distinguish source-level from activity-level propositions?
A DNA result may support who contributed biological material without establishing how or when the material was deposited.
48Scenario: An extraction blank produces a DNA profile matching an evidence sample. What should the laboratory investigate?
Potential contamination affecting the extraction batch and the reliability of the associated evidence results.
49Scenario: A degraded sample produces alleles at short STR loci but no results at longer loci. What is a plausible explanation?
DNA fragmentation may have prevented successful amplification of longer targets.
50Scenario: A DNA mixture has strong support for a person's contribution but the item was handled by several people. What limitation must be reported?
The genetic association does not independently establish the timing, mechanism, or criminal significance of the DNA transfer.